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BR0-002 Q & A / Study Guide

2012-01-28T00:58:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
Horizontal cross-connect (HCC) is a term in networks for a wiring closet where the horizontal
cabling connects to a patch panel which is connected by backbone cabling to the main distribution
facility. Which of the following is the maximum CAT3 length acceptable for a horizontal crossconnect?

A. 100 meters (328 feet)
B. 125 meters (410 feet)
C. 256 meters (840 feet)
D. 328 meters (1076 feet)

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which wireless technology permits communication to run at 2.4Ghz and up to 54Mbps?

A. 802.11b
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
John works as a network administrator of his company. He is noticing timeouts when a user logs
in. Which of the following would permit John to spread network authentication request traffic
across multiple authentication servers?

A. Load balancing
B. Caching engines
C. QoS
D. Traffic shaping

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What does the 10 stand for in 10Base-T?

A. Delay
B. Speed
C. Resistance
D. Length

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements regarding FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interface) is TRUE?

A. FDDI uses CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection) for media access
control.
B. FDDI consists of two counter rotating token rings.
C. FDDI has a maximum transmission speed of 54 Mbps.
D. FDDI has a maximum transmission distance of 1,000 meters.

Answer: B

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FC0-U41 Q & A / Study Guide

2012-01-23T04:39:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?

A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the
ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX
motherboards. With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX
motherboards, the expansion cards connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using
riser cards.
What is LPX?
LPX is a motherboard form or that is used in some desktop computers. In LPX motherboards,
expansion cards are inserted into a riser card that contains several slots. Unlike other common
form ors such as AT and ATX, the expansion cards in LPX are not vertical, but parallel to the
motherboard.
The LPX form or is designed for smaller cases, and usually it is used for connecting two or three
expansion cards.

QUESTION 2
Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD) card, MMC
card, and CompactFlash (CF)?

A. E-book reader
B. Memory card reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Barcode reader

Answer: B

Explanation:
A memory card reader is a device, typically having a USB interface, for accessing the data on a
memory card such as a CompactFlash (CF),
Secure Digital (SD) or MultiMediaCard (MMC).
Answer option C is incorrect. Smart card readers are used to read smart cards. It is used as a
communications medium between the smart card and a host.
Answer option D is incorrect. A barcode reader (or barcode scanner) is an electronic device for
reading printed barcodes.
Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such device as e-book reader.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Biometrics
B. Encryption
C. Password
D. Token

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
The following can be used to accomplish authentication.
1. Password
2. Biometrics
3. Token
A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove
identity, or gain access to a resource.
What is authentication?
Authentication is a process of verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process.
The authentication process compares the provided credentials with the credentials stored in the
database of an authentication server.
What is biometrics?
Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints,
scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user. Nowadays, the
usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners is becoming more
common in the business environment. A token may be a physical device or software token that an
authorized user of computer services is given to ease authentication.
Answer option B is incorrect. Encryption can be used to accomplish security and not
authentication.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. SMPS
B. Floppy drive
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
A computer monitor and SMPS are at high voltage. Therefore, these devices can be fatal. They
usually have large amount of electric charge stored in capacitors for days after they have been
unplugged from power source.
What is SMPS?
Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage
and current for the operation of electronic equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency.
Answer options D and B are incorrect. Keyboards and floppy drives do not store electric charge.
Therefore, they cannot cause lethal electric shocks.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. USB
B. DB-25
C. PS/2
D. DB-9

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
The PS/2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard.
What is USB?
Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel,
Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to
external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be
installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to
127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1
has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer
rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1.
Answer options D and B are incorrect. The DB-9 and DB-25 port types on the computer are used
as serial ports. A DB-9 male type port has 9 pins, whereas a DB-25 male type port has 25 pins.
What is a serial port?
Serial port is the primary means for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There are two
types of serial port connectors, 9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the data is sent in
series, one bit at a time, over a single wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits
at a time via a parallel channel, but serial signals can travel much farther without degradation.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following features are related to power management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Hot plugging
B. Hibernate mode
C. Standby mode
D. Safe mode

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The Hibernate mode and Standby mode are features related to power management.
Hibernate mode is a power saving feature for computers. In hibernate mode, the current state of a
computer is saved to the hard disk, and the computer shuts down. A user will have to power on
the computer to restore the previous settings. When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it
reads the saved settings from the disk and restores the system state as it was before it entered
hibernate mode. By default, hibernate mode is disabled. If a computer is not ACPI-enabled or
APM-enabled, users will have to enter hibernate mode manually. Users cannot set the computer
to automatically hibernate after a certain time. With ACPI-enabled and APM-enabled computers,
users are able to set hibernate mode automatically.
The standby mode is a power saving feature for computers. In this mode, a computer does not
shut down completely. The computer goes to low power state and, as a result, it consumes less
power.
When the computer resumes from the standby mode, full power is restored to its devices. During
the standby mode, if the power supply is disconnected or interrupted, data might be lost. The
standby mode is available automatically on ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers. Users do
not need to enable this mode manually. This mode is not available in non-ACPI and non-APM
based computers.
Answer option A is incorrect. Hot plugging is a feature in which a device can be installed or
removed while the computer is running.
Answer option D is incorrect. Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic
drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or
installation of incompatible drivers or system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such
issues.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are types of LCD monitors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. SVGA
B. Active Matrix
C. Passive Matrix
D. X-Matrix

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Two types of LCDs are available.
Active matrix
Passive matrix
Active matrix LCDs uses individual transistors to control each pixel on the screen. This type of
LCD consumes more power but provides sharper images than the passive matrix LCD. Passive
matrix Passive matrix screens do not refresh quickly to rapid changes. The passive matrix screen
displays weak colors. LCDs consume less power and are cheaper than Active matrix LCDs.
Answer option A is incorrect. SVGA is a type of CRT monitor used with the Desktop computers,
and not the LCD monitor.
Answer option D is incorrect. There is no LCD display type such as X-Matrix.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio?

A. DVI
B. S-Video
C. SVGA
D. HDMI

Answer: D

Explanation:
HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface. It is a standard, uncompressed, and alldigital
audio/video interface. HDMI is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and
multichannel digital audio on a single cable. It provides an interface between any audio/video
sources, such as a DVD player or a computer and a digital television (DTV) or video monitor.
HDMI transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio, with extra
bandwidth to accommodate future enhancements. HDMI has two types of connectors. Type A and
Type B. Type A and Type B connectors use 19 pins and 29 pins, respectively. The Type B
connector is designed for very high-resolution displays that are expected in near future.
Answer option B is incorrect. S-Video, also known as Y/C video, stands for Super-Video. It is a
technology for video transmission. Using this technology, the video is transmitted into two
separate signals. One is used for color, and the other for brightness. Sometimes S-Video signals
are considered as a type of component video signal. However, its quality is inferior to other
complex component video schemes such as RGB. This technology produces sharper images than
those produced by composite video, which carries the entire set of signals in a single line. For
using SVideo, the device sending the signal must support S-Video output and the device receiving
the signal needs to have an S-Video input jack.
Answer option A is incorrect. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed,
high resolution digital display invented by
Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a
single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD
monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital
signals coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables.
DVI has three main categories of connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an
analog-only connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector.
DVI-D and DVI-I connectors are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and
HDTV with a single set of links.
Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links.
Answer option C is incorrect. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector,
on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High-
Definition_Multimedia_Interface"

QUESTION 9
You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains that
his laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type of
expansion card should you use?

A. MCA
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AGP

Answer: B

Explanation:
PCMCIA is a widely used expansion card slot for laptops.
What is PCMCIA card? Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA)
card is also known as PC card.
The PC card uses a small expansion slot and is primarily used in laptops. However, PC cards are
also available in some of the desktop computers. There are three types of PCMCIA cards.
1.Type I
2.Type II
3.Type III
Answer option C is incorrect. PCI slots are used in PC's, not laptops.
Answer option D is incorrect. AGP is a legacy graphics slot for PC's.
What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)?
AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. It
allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video
performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133 MB/second.
Answer option A is incorrect. MCA is a legacy PC slot.
Reference. http.//www.wisegeek.com/what-is-an-expansion-card.htm

QUESTION 10
Which of the following terms refers to an anti-virus software file that is updated from time to time to
protect a computer from new viruses?

A. Definition
B. Modules
C. Service pack
D. Hotfix

Answer: A

Explanation:
Definition is an anti-virus software file that should be updated at regular intervals to protect a
computer from new viruses. This file is also known as virus definition file. The virus definition file
contains information about the latest viruses, which helps identify new viruses and protect
computers from them.
Answer option D is incorrect. Hotfix is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates
that are released between major service pack releases. A hotfix is about a problem, occurring
under specific circumstances, which cannot wait to be fixed till the next service pack release.
Hotfixes are generally related to security problems. Hence, it is essential to fix these problems as
soon as possible.
Answer option C is incorrect. A service pack is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single
product. A service pack can be used to handle a large number of viruses and bugs or to update an
operating system with advanced and better capabilities. A service pack usually contains a number
of file replacements.
Answer option B is incorrect. This term does not refer to any anti-virus software file. Reference.
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_virus"

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220-701 - 220-702 Study Guide

2012-01-02T04:34:00.000-08:00

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Contents at a Glance
Introduction 1
Part I A+ Essentials 220-701
CHAPTER 1 Hardware 3
CHAPTER 2 Troubleshooting, Repair, and Maintenance 57
CHAPTER 3 Operating System and Software 95
CHAPTER 4 Networking 147
CHAPTER 5 Security 185
CHAPTER 6 Operational Procedure 211
Part II A+ 220-702
CHAPTER 7 Hardware 241
CHAPTER 8 Operating Systems 285
CHAPTER 9 Networking 339
CHAPTER 10 Security 375

Table of Contents
Introduction. ......................................................................................................................... 1
Part I A+ Essentials 220-701
Chapter 1:
Hardware. .............................................................................................................................. 3
1.1 Categorize storage devices and backup media . ...................................... 3
1.2 Explain motherboard components, types, and features. ...................... 6
1.3 Classify power supplies types and characteristics. ............................... 16
1.4 Explain the purpose and characteristics of CPUs and their features.
................................................................................................................................. 18
1.5 Explain cooling methods and devices . ................................................... 21
1.6 Compare and contrast memory types, characteristics, and their
purpose. ................................................................................................................. 22
1.7 Distinguish between the different display devices and their characteristics
. ................................................................................................................ 25
1.8 Install and configure peripherals and input devices. ........................... 27
1.9 Summarize the function and types of adapter cards . ......................... 29
1.10 Install, configure, and optimize laptop components and features.
................................................................................................................................. 32
1.11 Install and configure printers . ................................................................ 35
Quick-Check Answer Key . ................................................................................ 40
Answers and Explanations . ............................................................................. 41
Chapter 2:
Troubleshooting, Repair, and Maintenance . .............................................................. 57
2.1 Given a scenario, explain the troubleshooting theory. ...................... 57
2.2 Given a scenario, explain and interpret common hardware and operating
system symptoms and their causes . ................................................... 60
2.3 Given a scenario, determine the troubleshooting methods and tools
for printers. .......................................................................................................... 64
2.4 Given a scenario, explain and interpret common laptop issues and
determine the appropriate basic troubleshooting method . .................. 67
2.5 Given a scenario, integrate common preventative maintenance techniques
. .................................................................................................................. 71
Quick-Check Answer Key . ................................................................................ 81
Answers and Explanations . ............................................................................. 82
Chapter 3:
Operating System and Software . .................................................................................. 95
3.1 Compare and contrast the different Windows Operating
Systems and their features. ............................................................................. 95
3.2 Given a scenario, demonstrate proper use of user interfaces . ....... 107
3.3 Explain the process and steps to install and configure the
Windows OS. ................................................................................................... 113
3.4 Explain the basics of boot sequences, methods, and startup
utilities . .............................................................................................................. 123
Quick-Check Answer Key . ............................................................................. 127
Answers and Explanations . ........................................................................... 129
Chapter 4:
Networking . ..................................................................................................................... 147
4.1 Summarize the basics of networking fundamentals, including technologies,
devices, and protocols . .................................................................... 147
4.2 Categorize network cables and connectors and their implementations
. ................................................................................................................... 159
4.3 Compare and contrast the different network types . ......................... 164
Quick-Check Answer Key . ............................................................................. 169
Answers and Explanations . ........................................................................... 170
Chapter 5:
Security . ............................................................................................................................ 185
5.1 Explain the basic principles of security concepts and
echnologies . ...................................................................................................... 185
5.2 Summarize the following security features . ........................................ 193
Quick-Check Answer Key . ............................................................................. 199
Answers and Explanations . ........................................................................... 200
Chapter 6:
Operational Procedure . ................................................................................................. 211
6.1 Outline the purpose of appropriate safety and environmental
procedures and, given a scenario, apply them . ...................................... 211
6.2 Given a scenario, demonstrate the appropriate use of communication
skills and professionalism in the workplace . .................................. 221
Quick-Check Answer Key . ............................................................................. 229
Answers and Explanations . ........................................................................... 230
Part II A+ 220-702
Chapter 7:
Hardware. ......................................................................................................................... 241
1.1 Given a scenario, install, configure, and maintain personal computer
components . ..................................................................................................... 241
1.2 Given a scenario, detect problems, troubleshoot, and repair/replace
personal computer components . ............................................................... 252
1.3 Given a scenario, install, configure, detect problems, troubleshoot,
and repair/replace laptop components . ................................................... 260
1.4 Given a scenario, select and use the following tools . ...................... 261
1.5 Given a scenario, detect and resolve common printer issues . ....... 263
Quick-Check Answer Key . .............................................................................. 270
Answers and Explanations . ........................................................................... 271
Chapter 8:
Operating Systems . ........................................................................................................ 285
2.1 Select the appropriate commands and options to troubleshoot
and resolve problems . .................................................................................... 285
2.2 Differentiate between Windows Operating System directory structures
(Windows 2000, XP, Vista, and Windows 7) . .............................. 296
2.3 Given a scenario, select and use system utilities/tools and
evaluate the results . ........................................................................................ 299
2.4 Evaluate and resolve common issues . ................................................... 310
Quick-Check Answer Key . ............................................................................. 319
Answers and Explanations . ........................................................................... 321

Chapter 9:
Networking . ..................................................................................................................... 339
3.1 Troubleshoot client-side connectivity issues using appropriate
tools . ................................................................................................................... 339
3.2 Install and configure a small office home office (SOHO)
network . ............................................................................................................ 352
Quick-Check Answer Key . ............................................................................. 361
Answers and Explanations . ........................................................................... 362
Chapter 10:
Security . ............................................................................................................................ 375
4.1 Given a scenario, prevent, troubleshoot, and remove viruses
and malware . ................................................................................................... 375
4.2 Implement security and troubleshoot common issues . .................. 379
Quick-Check Answer Key . .............................................................................. 395
Answers and Explanations . ........................................................................... 396

==================================================================
Introduction
Welcome to CompTIA A+ Practice Questions Exam Cram. The sole purpose of
this book is to provide you with practice questions that are complete with
answers and explanations to help you learn, drill, and review for the CompTIA
A+ certification exam. The book offers many questions that will help you practice
each exam objective and will help you assess your knowledge before you
write the real exam. The detailed answers to every question will help you reinforce
your knowledge about different issues involving the concepts associated
with the updated A+ exam (2009 Edition), which also includes topics on
Windows 7 and IPv6.
Who This Book Is For
If you have studied the content for both the 220-701 and 220-702 exam and feel
you are ready to put your knowledge to the test, but you are not sure that you
want to take the real exam yet, this book is for you! If you have answered other
practice questions or unsuccessfully taken the real exam, and want to do more
practice questions before going to take the real exam, this book is for you, too!
Even when the exam is done and you have passed with flying colors and have the
A+ certificate in your pocket, keep the book handy on your desktop to look for
answers to your everyday security issues.
What You Will Find in This Book
This book is all about practice questions! The practice questions in the book,
some very easy and others with a little complicated problem scenario, all are
intended to raise your confidence level before you take the real exam. You will
find questions that you will face in real life.
This book is organized according to the objectives published by CompTIA for
the 220-701: CompTIA A+ Essentials and 220-702: CompTIA A+ (2009
Edition) exams. Each chapter corresponds to an exam objective, and in every
chapter, you will find the following three elements:
. Practice Questions: These are the numerous questions that will help
you learn, drill, and review exam objectives. All of the questions in this
section are multiple-choice type. Choose the correct answer based on
your knowledge of security.
. Quick-Check Answer Key: After you have finished answering the questions,
you can quickly grade your exam from this section. Only correct

CompTIA A+ 220-701 and 220-701 Practice Questions Exam Cram
answers are given in this section. No explanations are offered yet! Even if
you have answered a question incorrectly, do not be discouraged. Just
move on! Keep in mind that this is not the real exam. You can always
review the topic and do the questions again.
. Answers and Explanations: This section provides you with correct
answers as well as further explanations about the content posed in that
question. Use this information to learn why an answer is correct and to
reinforce the content in your mind for the exam day.
Note
It is not possible to reflect a real exam on a paper product. As mentioned earlier, the purpose
of the book is to help you prepare for the exam and not provide you with real exam
questions. Neither the author nor the publisher can guarantee that you will pass the exam
only by memorizing the practice questions given in this book.

Hints for Using This Book
Because this book is a paper practice product, you might want to complete your
exams on a separate piece of paper so that you can reuse the practice questions
again and again without having previous answers in your way. Also, a general
rule of thumb across all practice questions products is to make sure that you are
scoring in the high 80% to 90% range for all topics before attempting the real
exam. The higher percentages you score on practice question products, the better
your chances for passing the real exam. Of course, we cannot guarantee a
passing score on the real exam, but we can offer you plenty of opportunities to
practice and assess your knowledge level before you enter the real exam.
When you have completed the exam on paper, use the companion CD to take a
timed exam. This will further help you gain confidence and make a self-assessment
in case you need more study. Your results will indicate the exam objectives
in which you need further study or hands-on practice.
Need Further Study?
Are you having a hard time correctly answering these questions? If so, you probably
need further review of all exam objectives. Be sure to see the following sister
products to this book:
CompTIA A+ Exam Cram, Fifth Edition by David L. Prowse, (ISBN:
9780789747921)
CompTIA A+ Cert Flash Cards Online (220-701, 220-702), Retail Packaged Version,
Third Edition, by Scott Honeycutt (ISBN: 9780132674553)

1 C H A P T E R O N E
Hardware
The first domain for the A+ Essentials (220-701) exam is hardware, which
focuses on teaching you to identify components and to demonstrate a basic
knowledge of hardware technology. This domain is essential because it gives
you a background for the other domains and also counts as 27% of the test
score, the largest percentage of all the domains. It also includes the most
objectives because today’s PCs have such a wide variety of hardware and
technology:
The objectives for this domain are as follows:
. 1.1—Categorize storage devices and backup media
. 1.2—Explain motherboard components, types, and features
. 1.3—Classify power supplies types and characteristics
. 1.4—Explain the purpose and characteristics of CPUs and their features
. 1.5—Explain cooling methods and devices
. 1.6—Compare and contrast memory types, characteristics, and their
purpose
. 1.7—Distinguish between the different display devices and their
characteristics
. 1.8—Install and configure peripherals and input devices
. 1.9—Summarize the function and types of adapter cards
. 1.10—Install, configure, and optimize laptop components and features
1.1 Categorize storage devices and backup media
. FDD
. HDD
. Solid state vs. magnetic
. Optical drives
. CD/DVD/RW/Blu-Ray
. Removable storage
. Tape drive
. Solid state (e.g., thumb drive, flash, SD cards, USB)
. External CD-RW and hard drive
. Hot swappable devices and non-hot swappable devices From <

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Microsoft 70-236 Q & A / Study Guide

2011-12-11T10:58:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
You work as the Exchange Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network has an Exchange
Server 2007 infrastructure.
The network contains a mailbox named TestResources. At present all users are able to diarize
appointments for TestResources. A new company policy states that only Kara Lang and Mia
Hamm are permitted to diarize appointments for TestResources.
What actions must you take to comply with the Certkingdom.com policy?

A. You should run the following cmdlet:
Set- MailboxCalendarSettings - Identity"TestResources" - MonthCalendar calendar = new
MonthCalendar(); KaraLang , MiaHamm.
B. You should run the following cmdlet:
Set-MailboxCalendarSettings - Identity " TestResources" - BookInPolicy KaraLang , MiaHamm -
AllBookInPolicy $false cmdlet.
C. You should run the following cmdlet:
Set - MonthCalendar calendar = new MonthCalendar(); “host.KaraLang , MiaHamm = calendar "
this.Content = host;.
D. You should run the following cmdlet:
Set - MonthCalendar calendar = new MonthCalendar();
HwndSource source = HwndSource.FromHwnd(calendar.Handle);
this.Content = calendar;Delegates KaraLang , MiaHamm.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
You work as the Exchange Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network has an Exchange
Server 2007 environment. Certkingdom.com has headquarters in London and branch offices in Paris and
Berlin. The marketing department is located at the Paris office. The personnel in Paris connect to
the network through the Internet and use Outlook Anywhere on their laptops. To ensure
productivity management wants you to make sure that the marketing personnel have access to the
companies' mailboxes.
What actions must you take?

A. You should utilize the Test- MAPIConnectivity and the Test- WebServicesConnectivity cmdlet.
B. You should utilize Get- Recipient – Filter cmdlet.
C. You should utilize Show-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D. You should utilize List-Mailbox cmdlet.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
You work as the Exchange administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network has an Exchange
Server 2007 environment. The Certkingdom.com network has an Exchange Server 2007 environment.
The Edge Transport Server role is installed on a server named Certkingdom-EX01. Due to this server
failure, you have decided to install a new Microsoft Windows Server 2003 server named CertkingdomEX03
on the network with the reinstallation of the Edge Transport Server role. However, the
address rewrites that was functional on Certkingdom-EX01 did not in operation on Certkingdom-EX03. This
functionality is needed.
What actions must you take?

A. You should use the ImportEdgeConfig.ps1 on Certkingdom-EX03.
B. You should use the iiscnfg/enable: application name check version.
C. You should use the Transaction Logs for sp_configure configuration.
D. You should use create a new Send connector on Certkingdom-EX03.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
You work as the Exchange administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com has headquarters in London and
a branch office in Paris. The Exchange Server 2007 server in the London office is named CertkingdomEX07
and the Exchange Server 2003 server in the London office is named Certkingdom-EX08. You need
to transfer the mailbox from Certkingdom-EX07 to Certkingdom-EX08.
What actions must you take?

A. You should include the IgnoreRuleLimitErrors parameter when using the Move-Mailbox cmdlet.
B. You should use the System configuration data collector.
C. You should create a mapping schema definition.
D. You should enable the Windows Remote Management (WinRM).

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION 5
You work as the Exchange administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com has its headquarters in Chicago
and a branch office in Dallas. You are implementing a new Exchange Server 2007 Organization.
The Exchange Server 2007 environment of Certkingdom.com has the following server installed:
• An Edge Transport server named Certkingdom-EX01
• A Hub Transport server named Certkingdom-EX02.
During the course of the day you have received instruction from the CIO to have e-mail routing
configured on Certkingdom-EX01 and Certkingdom-EX02. In your solution you need to ensure that Certkingdom-EX01 is
able to transmit e-mail messages to and from the Internet. You should also ensure that Internet email
is sent to Certkingdom-EX01 via Certkingdom-EX02.
What actions must you take?

A. You should use the Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM).
B. You should export a new Edge Subscription file to Certkingdom-EX01 and Import the Edge Subscription
file to Certkingdom-EX02.
C. You should use the Microsoft System Center Operations Manager (SCOM).
D. You should use the Microsoft Exchange Internet Message Access Protocol, Version 4 (IMAP4).

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 6
You work as the Exchange administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network has an Exchange
Server 2007 environment.
You were compelled to restore the directory objects and settings from a backup. However, after
the restoration a number of employees reported that they are unable to access their mailboxes
that were assigned to them before the backup was made. The employees need to access their
mailboxes.
What actions must you take?

A. You should use the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
B. You should use the Get-MailboxInformation cmdlet.
C. You should use the Connect-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. You should use the Show-Information cmdlet.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 7
You work as the Exchange administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network has an Exchange
Server 2007 environment.
During routine maintenance of the Exchange server you discover that the storage limits are all
different in the mailboxes.
What actions must you take to ensure that the storage limits to be the same?

A. You should use the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet and forward it to the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
B. You should use the Show-MailboxStatistics cmdlet and forward it to the Select-Object cmdlet.
C. You should use the Get-MailboxInformation cmdlet and forward it to the Select-Object cmdlet.
D. You should create an Exchange Management Shell script and forward the Get-Mailbox
Database cmdlet output to the Set-Mailbox Database cmdlet.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 8
You work as the Exchange administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network has an Exchange
Server 2007 environment. The Certkingdom.com network contains a stand-alone server named CertkingdomSR09.
Your boss, CertKingdom, wants to know which Exchange Server 2007 server role can Certkingdom-SR09
support.
What would you reply?

A. It can support the Terminal Service Session Broker (TS Session Broker) role.
B. It can support the Edge Transport server role.
C. It can support the PDC emulator role.
D. It can support the Exchange Recipient Administrators role.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 9
You work as the Exchange Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network has an Exchange
Server 2007 infrastructure that has two Client Access Servers with load balancing.
The employees on the intranet has 24/7 access to data when utilizing Outlook Anywhere. During
the course of the day you have received instruction from the CIO to ensure that the employees
who connect to the Exchange infrastructure via the IUnernet also have access to data 24/7.
What actions must you take?

A. You should enable the Microsoft Exchange Information Store.
B. You should enable the Microsoft Exchange Search Service.
C. You should set the external URL on every Client Access Server.
D. You should enable the Microsoft Exchange File Distribution service.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 10
You work as the Exchange administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network has an Exchange
Server 2007 environment.
You have received several complaints from employees in various departments stating that e-mail
messages are ending up in their Junk E-mail folder even though the sender’s e-mail address is on
their Safe Senders List. You need to ensure that the employees' Safe Senders Lists are used.
What actions must you take?

A. You should modify the SMTP Send connectors.
B. You should utilize the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
C. You should utilize the Show-Information cmdlet.
D. You should utilize the Update-SafeList cmdlet on each mailbox.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Microsft 70-638 Q & A / Study Guide

2011-12-10T05:59:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. Your role includes the management of the
company’s communication system which comprises of servers running Microsoft Office
Communications Server 2007 Standard Edition.
A server named Certkingdom-WebConf1 is configured as a Web Conferencing Server. Certkingdom-WebConf1
runs Windows Server 2008 and is configured with a C: drive and a D: drive.
You create two shared folders on the D: drive of Certkingdom-WebConf1 named Meeting and Metadata.
You want to store meeting content in the \\Certkingdom-WebConf1\Meeting folder. You want to store the
Metadata in the \\Certkingdom-WebConf1\Metadata folder.
How should you configure the two shared folders?

A. You should modify the permissions on the two folders to grant the Read permission and the
Write permission to the RTC Component Local Group.
B. You should modify the permissions on the two folders to grant the Read permission to the RTC
Component Local Group
C. You should modify the permissions on the two folders to grant the Read permission and the
Write permission to the RTCComponentUniversalServices group.
D. You should modify the permissions on the two folders to grant the Read permission to the
RTCComponentUniversalServices group.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. Your role includes the management of the
company’s unified communication infrastructure which includes multiple servers running Office
Communications Server 2007 Enterprise Edition. The company network consists of an internal
LAN and a perimeter network.
The perimeter network includes the following two Edge servers:
Certkingdom-Edge1 is configured as an A/V Edge server.
Certkingdom-Edge2 is configured as an Access and Web Conferencing Edge server.
The internal LAN includes the following OCS 2007 servers:
Certkingdom-Front1 is configured as a load balanced front end server.
Certkingdom-Front2 is configured as a load balanced front end server.
Certkingdom-SQL1 is configured as a clustered SQL Server.
Certkingdom-Dir1 is configured as a Director.
Certkingdom-Med1 is configured as a Mediation Server.
Remote users will use Microsoft Office Communicator Web Access 2007 for external access to
instant messaging and presence features.
You want to ensure that traffic from Communicator Web Access clients is encrypted using HTTPS.
Where should you install a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate to provide the HTTPS access?

A. You should install a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate on Certkingdom-Dir1.
B. You should install a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate on Certkingdom-Edge1.
C. You should install a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate on Certkingdom-Edge2.
D. You should install a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate on Certkingdom-Front1 and Certkingdom-Front2.
E. You should install a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate on Certkingdom-Med1.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers run either Windows Server 2003 R2 or
Windows Server 2008. The client computers run either Windows XP Professional SP2 or
Windows 7 Professional. The office has a T1 data circuit and a T1 voice circuit.
You have been asked to deploy Office Communications Server 2007 as a unified communications
system for the company.
You install Office Communications Server 2007 Standard Edition on a server named Certkingdom-OCS1.
You then install Office Communicator 2007 on the client computers.
How can you enable all employees to call external phone numbers using Office Communicator
2007?

A. By uCertkingdomrading the Windows XP client computers to Service Pack 3 or later.
B. By uCertkingdomrading Certkingdom-OCS1 to Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise Edition.
C. By installing a Mediation server.
D. By installing a Director server.
E. By installing an Access Edge server.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The company uses an Office Communications
Server (OCS) 2007 Enterprise infrastructure for it’s unified communications system.
All client computers run Microsoft Office Communicator 2007 and are enabled for Address Book
Lookup.
Several new employees have started work at Certkingdom.com. The new employees all have Active
Directory user accounts and are enabled for OCS.
You have updated the address book in Office Communications Server 2007 by running the
abserver- regenUR and abserver- syncnow utilities.
What else should you do to ensure that the Microsoft Office Communicator 2007 clients download
the latest address book?

A. You should rename the Galcontacts.xml file on each network computer.
B. You should delete the Galcontacts.db file on each client computer.
C. You should delete the Outlook.nk file on each client computer.
D. You should run abserver- syncnow on each client computer.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers run either Windows Server 2003 R2 or
Windows Server 2008.
You are in the process of configuring a Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise
infrastructure to provide Enterprise Voice and Instant Messaging for the company.
You want to enable Public IM Connectivity (PIC) to enable employees to use Office Communicator
2007 initiate voice calls and IM conversations with users that run Windows Live Messenger.
Which of the following server roles are required to enable Public IM Connectivity (PIC)?

A. An Audio/Video Conferencing Edge Server.
B. A Web Conferencing Edge Server.
C. An Access Edge Server.
D. A Mediation Server.
E. A Reverse Proxy Server

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 6
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. You have been tasked with a project to design
a solution that provides Instant Messaging (IM) for the company.
The solution must enable external users or customers to initiate IM conversations with Certkingdom.com
employees working within the office LAN. IM sessions should be automatically reconnected if the
session is disconnected by an interruption in network connectivity.
You decide to implement Office Communications Server (OCS) 2007.
Which two of the following Office Communications Server (OCS) 2007 configurations would meet
the requirements and minimize costs? (Choose two).

A. OCS 2007 Standard Edition configured as a Front-End server.
B. OCS 2007 Enterprise Edition configured as a Front-End server.
C. OCS 2007 Standard Edition configured as a Mediation server.
D. OCS 2007 Enterprise Edition configured as a Mediation server.
E. OCS 2007 Standard Edition configured as an Access Edge server.
F. OCS 2007 Enterprise Edition configured as an Access Edge server.

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 7
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers run either Windows Server 2003 R2 or
Windows Server 2008. The company network consists of an internal LAN and a perimeter
network.
You are in the process of configuring a Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise
infrastructure to provide unified communications for the company.
Your deployment includes the following servers in the perimeter network.
Certkingdom-Edge1 is configured as an Access Edge server.
Certkingdom-Edge2 is configured as a Web Conferencing Edge server.
Certkingdom-RP1 is configured as a Reverse Proxy Server.
Your deployment also includes the following servers in the internal network.
Certkingdom-Front1 is configured as a load balanced front end server.
Certkingdom-Front2 is configured as a load balanced front end server.
Certkingdom-SQL1 is configured as a clustered SQL Server.
You need to provide external users with A/V conferencing and Web conferencing capability.
Which server role do you need to add to the infrastructure to provide the required capability?

A. A Director Server.
B. A Certificate Server.
C. An A/V Conferencing Edge Server.
D. A Mediation Server.
E. A Web Conferencing Edge Server.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 8
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers run either Windows Server 2003 R2 or
Windows Server 2008.
The company has a Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 SP1 Enterprise Edition
infrastructure. You are in the process of migrating to an Office Communications Server 2007
Enterprise Edition infrastructure.
The Marketing department has been migrated to Office Communications Server 2007. The Sales
department still use the Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 SP1 system.
Twenty users are moving from the Marketing department to the Sales department. You need to
move the users from the Office Communications Server 2007 system to the Microsoft Office Live
Communications Server 2005 SP1 system.
You have enabled the users on the Live Communications Server 2005 SP1 system. You now
need to migrate the user data.
Which two of the following steps should you perform to migrate the user data from the from the
Office Communications Server 2007 system to the Microsoft Office Live Communications Server
2005 SP1 system? (Choose two).

A. You should export the user data from Office Communications Server 2007 using the Office
Communications Server 2007 administrative tools.
B. You should export the user data from Office Communications Server 2007 using Dbimpexp.exe.
C. You should import the user data into Live Communications Server 2003 SP1 using Live
Communications Server 2007 SP1 administrative tools.
D. You should import the user data into Live Communications Server 2005 SP1 using Dbimpexp.exe.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 9
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All servers run either Windows Server 2003 R2 or
Windows Server 2008.
You are in the process of configuring an Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise
infrastructure to provide unified communications for the company.
Your deployment includes the following servers.
Certkingdom-Edge1 is configured as an Access Edge and Web Conferencing Edge server.
Certkingdom-Front1 is configured as a front end server.
Certkingdom-SQL1 is configured as a SQL Server.
You need to configure the corporate firewall to provide external users with Web conferencing
capability.
How should you configure the firewall to provide the Web conferencing capability? (Choose two).

A. You should open TCP port 80 inbound to Certkingdom-Front1.
B. You should open TCP port 80 inbound to Certkingdom-Edge1.
C. You should open TCP port 443 inbound to Certkingdom-Front1.
D. You should open TCP port 443 inbound to Certkingdom-Edge1.
E. You should open TCP port 5061 inbound to Certkingdom-Front1.
F. You should open TCP port 5061 inbound to Certkingdom-Edge1.

Answer: D,F

Explanation:

QUESTION 10
You work as a Network Administrator at Certkingdom.com. The network consists of a single Active
Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.
The company uses an Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise infrastructure that includes
the following servers.
Certkingdom-Front1 is configured as a front end server.
Certkingdom-SQL1 is configured as a SQL Server.
To increase capacity, you plan to expand the Office Communications Server 2007 infrastructure.
You will add another server running Office Communications Server 2007 Enterprise edition and
move from the current consolidated configuration to an expanded configuration.
Which server role do you need to add the current infrastructure to create an expanded
configuration?

A. You need to add a Director Server.
B. You need to add a Mediation Server.
C. You need to add an Access Edge Server.
D. You need to add a Front-End Server.
E. You need to add a Back-End Server.

Answer: D

Explanation:

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Microsoft 70-630 Q & A / Study Guide

2011-12-09T12:38:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. You have just the completed the
insertion of new content in the root site. However, later that day the users complained that the new
content is not added in the search results when they run searches on the root site. You need to
make sure that the relevant content is included in query results.
What actions should you take to perform this task?

A. The best option is to set the Complete Through constraint.
B. The best option is to reset the crawled content and start a full crawl.
C. The best option is to set the Resource Center view.
D. The best option is to edit the CSS style sheet to include the new content.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. One of Certkingdom.com branch offices
consists of a Windows Server 2003 Active Directory domain. You have received instructions from
the CIO to extend SharePoint user profiles to include the userID property from the users' domain accounts.
What actions should you take to perform this task?

A. The best option is to add a Microsoft Operations Manager (MOM) server.
B. The best option is to create a custom Microsoft Management Console that can access the branch office.
C. The best option is to create a new user profile property that is configured with import mapping.
D. The best option is to run the SharePoint Products and Technologies Configuration.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network contains a
SharePoint Portal Server 2003 server named ABC-SR44. ABC-SR44 hosts a SharePoint portal
that is accessed through a hyperlink on the users' client computers.
The hyperlink points to http://www.Certkingdom.com/ms/certifications.
You want to migrate ABC-SR44 to Microsoft Office SharePoint Server (MOSS) 2007. You need to
ensure that the SharePoint portal will be accessible after the migration.
What actions should you take to perform this task?

A. By running the stsadm command with the osearch operator.
B. By editing the hyperlink so it will point to the new URL of the migrated content.
C. By running the stsadm command with the enumsites operator.
D. By enabling the Shared Services Provider Synchronizing job.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com contains a Microsoft
Content Management Server 2002 computer named ABC-SR11. You have received instructions
from the CIO to uABCrade ABC-SR11 to Microsoft Office SharePoint Server (MOSS) 2007.
What actions should you take to perform this task?

A. The best option is to run the stsadm command with the addwppack operator.
B. The best option is to run the stsadm command with the installfeature operator.
C. The best option is to run the CMS Assessment utility on ABC-SR11.
D. The best option is to run the Optimize HTML command in SharePoint Designer.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com has a Development
department with a database server named ABC-DB02. ABC-DB02 hosts a database named CkdProducts.
Certkingdom.com has implemented a Web application in the SharePoint site that must access data in CkdProducts.
What actions should you take?

A. The best option is to obtain and install an application definition file from the Development department.
B. The best option is to enable the Save for Sharing option, then save CkdProducts in the Development department.
C. The best option is to save CkdProducts as a Microsoft Excel 2007 worksheet.
D. The best option is to create a custom group in the Site Settings page to the trusted file locations list.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 6
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com has a Web site named
testdocs that is hosted by an Internet service provider (ISP). Anonymous authentication is
configured on testdocs.
Certkingdom.com adds a Microsoft Excel 2007 spread sheet to testdocs. However, you have received
complaints from Certkingdom.com users that they get access denied errors when trying to use Excel
Services to access the spreadsheets.
What step should you perform to resolve this problem?

A. You should consider configuring a new Excel Services trusted file location.
B. You should consider selecting the Enable logging option.
C. You should consider configuring the Event Throttling feature.
D. You should consider editing the application.master file.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 7
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. Certkingdom.com has a Sales department
that stores documents in a SharePoint site. The site has a list view Web part named
ABCCustomers that is populated with the names of customers.
You have received instructions from the CIO to add another Web part that will allow the Sales department
members to filter the names displayed on the ABCCustomers Web part.
How would you accomplish this?

A. By adding a Text Filter Web part.
B. By adding a DropDown List on the Web part.
C. By replacing the ABCCustomers Web part with a GridView.
D. By using the view in the team builder.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 8
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. You have received instructions from
the CIO to create a new SharePoint site based on the Report Center template. The site must have
a new page with the Key Performance Indicator (KPI) and the Key Performance Indicator (KPI)
Details Access Web parts.
What actions should you take?

A. The best option is to add a new dashboard page.
B. The best option is to add a pivot table on the Article page layout.
C. The best option is to add a State field on the News Home page layout.
D. The best option is to edit the default.master file on the Document Center template.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 9
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com network has a
database server named ABC-DB30 that is running Microsoft SQL Server 2005. Certkingdom.com has
acquired a Marketing Data Catalog (MDC) application that will access a database hosted on ABCDB30.
To ensure productivity throughout the company you need to make sure that the information
exposed via the Marketing Data Catalog (MDC) application is available in the search results.
What actions should you take to perform this task?

A. By having the information displayed in the Resources Earned Value view.
B. By having Project selected from the View Type list in order to display the resource data.
C. By having the application.master file edited using an ASCII editor.
D. By having the default access account implemented for the Marketing Data Catalog (MDC)
application.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 10
You work as a SharePoint Server administrator at Certkingdom.com. You have received instructions from
the CIO to implement a new SharePoint site. The CIO wants the site to have a key performance
indicator (KPI) list, a data connections library and a reference library.
How would you accomplish this?

A. The best option is to add a new pivot chart.
B. The best option is to add a new dashboard page.
C. The best option is to add a new State field.
D. The best option is to add a new Project Center page.

Answer: B

Explanation:

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Microsoft 70-526 Q & A / Study Guide

2011-12-08T14:33:00.000-08:00

Best Microsoft MCTS Certification, Microsoft MCITP Training at certkingdom.com

QUESTION 1
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS001 as developing collateral. You have
received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox control's properties cannot
be changed with a logo that you have added to the PictureBox in the designer of the
form base. Before the time you have added a form to the Microsoft Windows Forms
Control Library project and add a PictureBox control to the form. The form is
presenting Certkingdom.com's logo.
What action should you take?

A. You should set the Locked property to False.
B. You should set the Locked property to True.
C. You should set the Modifiers property to Private.
D. You should set the Modifiers property to Protected.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When you set the Modifiers property to Private, the value will show
that only the base form can modify the control.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You should not set it to False, because the control can be moved and resized.
B: If you set the property to True the control cannot be removed of resized. .
D: If you set the Modifiers property to Protected, the value will show that the base form
and any of the form yet to come can modify the control.

QUESTION 2
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS005 as developing collateral. You have just
included a DateTimePicker control to a form. You then set the format property to
Time. During the cause of the day, you check how the DateTimePicker control is
working, and learnt that it does not allow the Certkingdom.com users to change the
selected time.
What should you do to change the control so that it will allow the Certkingdom.com uses
to change the selected time?

A. You should set the ShowUpDown property to True.
B. You should set the ShowSelectBox property to True.
C. You should set the Visible property to False.
D. You should set the Checked property to False.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The ShowUpDown property is by default set on False. You should set
it on True. On False it will show the DateTimePicker must simulate a drop-down
control. This setting will allow the users to set the MonthCalender. If it is set to True
the users can select the time.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ShowSelectBox will not resolve the problem. This will show if a CheckBox
should be displayed on the DateTimePicker.
C: If you set the Visible property to False, it will hide the DateTimePicker. .
D: You should not set the Checked property to False. If this is set on True, a CheckBox
control will be displayed on the DateTimePicker.

QUESTION 3
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS001 as developing collateral. The manager of
Certkingdom.com wants to have a borderless form with the background shown in the
exhibit.

When the form is view, the manager named Rory Allen does not want the maroon
area to be visible. He only wants the blue to be visible when the form is displayed.
Which of the following code segments should be used?

A. this.TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon;
B. this.BackColor = Color.Maroon;
C. this.TransparencyKey = Color.CornflowerBlue
D. this.BackColor = Color.Transparent;

Answer: A

Explanation:
The TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon specify the color that the
transparent represents the area on the form. With this setting the blue will respond
to the mouse.
Incorrect Answers:
B: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Maroon. This will determine the
background color of the form.
C: You should not use this code segment. The manager does not wan the blue area to be
transparent.
D: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Transparent. The manager does not want
the background to be transparent.

QUESTION 4
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral.
You have configured three columns to a form and add a TableLayoutPanel to the
form. You want the two side columns to have a fix width of 200 pixels each and
anchor the four edges of the form to the control. A Certkingdom.com manager wants
the center column to fill the remaining space, when ever the form is resized. You
need to change the ColumnStyle instance that represents the center column?
How should you set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property?

A. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.
B. Set it to Absolute and the Width property to 100F.
C. Set it to Percent and the Width property to 100F.
D. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 0F.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This setting will show that the column should fill the remaining space.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This setting will allow the column to be sized enough so that not any of its child
controls are clipped. In this setting the middle will not occupy the remaining free space.
B: If you set it to Absolute, the value of the Width property will show the number of
pixels for the column.
D: You need to set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property to AutoSize and the
Width property to 100F.

QUESTION 5
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral. You have added
a SplitContainer control named CertkingdomSplitContainer to a form. You then left the
control to the default properties. To the right-most container of the SplitContainer
control, you need to add a PropertyGrid.
Which of the following code segments should you use?

A. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
Panel rightPanel = [Panel] CertkingdomSplitContainer.GetContainerControl[];
rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
B. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
Panel rightPanel = [Panel] CertkingdomSplitContainer.GetNextControl[propertyGrid, true];
rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
C. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
CertkingdomSplitContainer.Container.Add[propertyGrid, "RightPanel"];
D. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
CertkingdomSplitContainer.Panel2.Control.Add[propertyGrid];

Answer: D

Explanation:
An area can be divided into two containers, which is separated by a
movable bar, if you use the SplitContainer control. When the two Panels are
created, the left one is the Panel1 and the right is Panel2. You are adding a panel so
it will be on the right. You then need to specify Panel2.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: You should not use the Add method of the SplitContainer.Container to add the
PropertyGrid. You also should not pass a PropertyGrid instance to the GetNextControl
method to return a Panel instance. This will actually retrieve the next tab-ordered control
given the current control. You also should not call the GetContainerControl method to
return a Panel instance. This will return the logical container of the SplitContainer
control.

QUESTION 6
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy to
develop a Microsoft Windows Forms exam delivery application. This is going to be
used to access the content of the exam via the Internet. A WebBrowser named
testbrowser is added to the control to a form named CertkingdomForm, which is define
as follows:
[PermissionSet[SecurityAction.Demand, Name="FullTrust"]]
[System.Runtime.InteropServices.ComVisible[true]]
public CertkingdomForm : Form
{
public CertkingdomForm[]
{
InitializeComponent[];
}
public void Expire[]
{
}
}
The JavaScript-based timer that is used by the Web site for the exam has a function
to inform the exam delivery application when the time has expired for the exam,
which is the following:
window.external.Expire[];
What should you do to make sure that the Expire method of CertkingdomForm is called
when the JavaScrip function is carry out?

A. You should set the Document.DomDocument property of the browser instance to the
current instance of the CertkingdomForm class.
B. You should set the ObjectForScripting property of the browser instance to the current
instance of the CertkingdomForm class.
C. You should call the AttachEventHandler of the Document property of the browser
instance.
D. You should call the ExecCommand method of the Document property of the browser
instance.

Answer: B

Explanation:
You must set the ObjectForScripting for the browser instance to the
current instance of the CertkingdomForm class.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The property of the Document.DomDocument represents the true DOM object of an
HTML document.
C: The AttachEventHandler allows you to attach a HTML Document Object Model
event to an event handler.
D: The ExecCommand method allows you to execute commands against DOM
documents.

QUESTION 7
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS003 as developing collateral. You have
received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox will display dynamically
loaded images.
Which property will display a static image if any dynamic image fails to load?

A. BackgroundImage
B. Image
C. ErrorImage
D. InitailImage

Answer: C

Explanation:
The ErrorImage property specifies the image that should be
displayed. This will happened only if the image that you are trying to load
dynamically fails.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The BackgroundImage property specifies a background image which is used by the
control.
B: The Image property specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display.
D: The InitailImage specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display while
the other one is loading.

QUESTION 8
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral. You are
developing a Web service for new updates to query automatically, by use of a
Microsoft Windows Forms application. You then add a NotifyIcon component
named Certkingdomnotify to the application's main form. Whenever a new update is
available you want the following balloon tip to display as seen in the exhibit for 5
seconds.

Which segment should you use to write a code to download the updates if the users
click the balloon tip?

A. Certkingdomnotify.BallonTipClick +=delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
Certkingdomnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000, "New Update Available"; "Click here to download"
, ToolTipIcon.Info];
B. Certkingdomnotify.ShowBallonTip[5];
Certkingdomnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
Certkingdom.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
Certkingdom.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
Certkingdom.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
C. Certkingdomnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
Certkingdom.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
Certkingdom.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
Certkingdom.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
Certkingdomnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000];
D. Certkingdomnotify.ShowBallonTip[5, New Update Available", "Click here to download",
ToolTipIcon.Info];
Certkingdom.BalloonTipClick += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}

Answer: A

Explanation:
You should use an event handler, attach the BalloonTipClicked to the
event and call the ShowBalloon Tip method of the NotifyIcon class. When a user
clicks a balloon tip, a BalloonTipClicked event is raised.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: You should not attach the BalloonTipClicked even to an event handler after you
have called the ShowBalloonTip method. Also note that the event is raised when the icon
is clicked and not the balloon tip.

QUESTION 9
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy
adding a MenuStrip control, which has an instance of a ToolStripMenu item named
testjobItem, to a form in a Microsoft Windows Forms application. This item's
display text is Job. You have received instructions to add two menu items to the Job
menu item. The first item's display text should be Create New Job, and the second
one is Run Job.
Which code segment should you use to programmatically add the two menu items?

A. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New
Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Container.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Container.Add[runJobItem];
B. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New
Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[runJobItem];
C. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New
Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.DropDownItems.AddRange[items];
D. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New
Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.Owner.Items.AddRange[items];

Answer: C

Explanation:
For the jobItem instance you should call the AddRange. The property
of the DropDownItems represents a collection of child items of the jobItem instance,
which allows you to add the two items to the job menu item.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This property returns an instance of IContainer, which represents a logical container
for other components.
B: The Owner property returns the Menu script instance that owns the
ToolStripMenuItem instance.
D: This action will add the two new menu at the same level as the Job menu item.

QUESTION 10
You are working as an application developer at Certkingdom.com. The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com.
Certkingdom.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. Certkingdom.com
consists of a Development department. You as the developer of Certkingdom.com use a
client computer named Certkingdom-WS050 as developing collateral. You were busy
with a task to add a ContextMenuStrip control to a form.
What should you do to display a custom control as a menu item of the
ContextMenuStrip control?

A. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the
Controls collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the
ContextMeniStrip control to the controls of the ToolStripContainer control.
B. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance
as a parameter to the conductor. You should then the ToolStripControlHost instance to
the Items collection of the ContextMeniStrip control.
C. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the
Controls collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the
ToolstripContainer control to the controls of the ContextMeniStrip controls.
D. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance
as a parameter to the conductor. You should then the ContextMeniStrip controls to the
collection of the ToolStripControlHost instance.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The ToolStripControlHost class to host a custom control as a menu
item in the ContextMeniStrip. You should also the custom control instance as the
parameter to the constructor.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: The ToolstripContainer should not be used to reach your goal. Furthermore, you
cannot host a ToolstripContainer control as the menu item in a ContextMeniStrip controls.

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Microsoft 70-447 - Q & A / Study Guide

2011-12-07T04:37:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
You work as DBA at Certkingdom.com. You administer two Windows Server 2003
computers named Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B. You install SQL Server 2005 on both
Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B to host a new company database. Certkingdom A hosts a
read-write copy of the company database in which all changes are made. Certkingdom B
subscribes to a publication on Certkingdom A and is only used for reporting. A Windows
domain administrator provides you with a domain user account named SQLSRV to use as
the security context for the SQL Server services. A password policy of 42 days exists in
the Default Domain Group Policy object (GPO). You install the database on Certkingdom A
and Certkingdom B and configure replication. Everything works fine for six weeks, but then
all SQL Server services fail. You need to correct the problem. What should you do?

A. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the Log on as service right to the
SQLSRV domain user account.
B. Configure the SQLSRV domain user account with a new strong password. Configure
the new password in the properties of each SQL Server service that failed.
C. Create a local user account on Certkingdom A named Certkingdom A and a local user account
on Certkingdom B named Certkingdom B. Configure Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B to run under the
context of the appropriate local user account.
D. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the SQLSRV domain user account
membership in the Domain Admins group.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Default Domain Group Policy object requires that passwords are
changed every 42 days. In order to correct this problem you have to change the
password in the Active Directory AND configure the new password on both you
SQL Servers to the newly changed password.

QUESTION 2
You are a database administrator of two SQL Server 2005 computers named Certkingdom A
and Certkingdom B. You have a Microsoft .NET application that has been modified so that it
now accesses a database on Certkingdom B in addition to Certkingdom A. You do not want the
user application to connect directly to Certkingdom B. You need to enable the data retrieval
from Certkingdom B while maintaining the ability to assign different permissions to different
users who use the .NET application. What should you do?

A. Change the .NET application to define a new server connection to Certkingdom B.
B. Configure a linked server on Certkingdom A to point to Certkingdom B.
C. Change the stored procedures called by the .NET application to include the
OPENXML command.
D. Configure a linked server on Certkingdom B to point to Certkingdom A.

Answer: B

Explanation:
SQL Server lets you access external data sources from your local
Transact-SQL code. You need to define a linked server for each external data
source you want to access and then configure the security context under which your
distributed queries will run. After you create a linked server, you can use the
Transact-SQL OPENQUERY function to execute your distributed queries.

QUESTION 3
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. Your company uses a different
company's application that is based on SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition. The
application executes a query that uses an index query hint. The index query hint is not
suitable for your environment, but you cannot modify the query. You need to force the
application to use a different query execution plan. What should you do?

A. Create a plan guide for the query.
B. Clear the procedure cache.
C. Create a new covering index on the columns that the query uses.
D. Update the statistics for all of the indexes that the query uses.

Answer: A
Over the past few years, Microsoft SQL Server has increased its
presence in the industry and has reduced its TCO. This reduced TCO is a direct
result, primarily, of the numerous self-tuning mechanisms built into Microsoft(r)
SQL Server. These mechanisms automatically perform tasks that would otherwise
have to be performed by experienced database administrators. One such
mechanism is the cost-based optimizer (CBO) that is used to dynamically generate
query execution plans. The CBO probes several system-wide resource states and
employs many complex, heuristical algorithms to generate the best possible plan for
a given query and the underlying table and index structures. This mechanism works
well for the vast majority of user queries, but there are times when experienced
users need to force a particular query plan, based on some prior knowledge or
insights into future uses.

QUESTION 4
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. Your SQL Server 2005 computer
contains one user database that holds sales transaction information. Users report that the
queries and stored procedures that they use every day are taking progressively longer to
execute. You also notice that the amount of free disk space on the SQL Server computer
is decreasing. You need to create a maintenance plan to correct the performance and
storage problems. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer
presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Check Database Integrity option.
B. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Reorganize Index option.
C. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Shrink Database option.
D. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Clean Up History option.
E. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Execute SQL Server Agent Job
option.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
When you indexes are not heavily fragmented you can reorganize
indexes, which uses few system resources and runs automatically online. In SQL
Server 2005, certain operations such as large delete operations or -one-time data
loads might leave database files larger than they need to be. SQL Server 2005
enables a DBA to shrink each file within a database to remove unused pages and
regain disk space.

QUESTION 5
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. You are responsible for a SQL
Server 2005 database that has several indexes. You need to write a stored procedure that
checks the indexes for fragmentation. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?

A. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
B. SELECT * FROM sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats
C. SELECT * FROM sys.indexes
D. DBCC DBREINDEX

Answer: B

Explanation:
The index_physical_stats function takes five parameters: database_id,
object_id, index_id, partition_id, and mode. This function returns row size and
fragmentation information.

QUESTION 6
You work as DBA at Certkingdom.com. You administer two SQL Server 2005 computers
named Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B. Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B contain a copy of a
database named Sales. The database is replicated between Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B by
using transactional replication. A full backup of each database is performed every night.
Transaction log backups are performed every hour. Replication latency is typically less
than two minutes. One afternoon, the Sales database on Certkingdom A becomes corrupted.
You are unable to repair the database. The Sales database on Certkingdom B is unaffected.
You need to return the Sales database on Certkingdom A to normal operation as quickly as
possible. You must ensure a minimum loss of data and minimal impact to users of either
server. What should you do?

A. Perform a full database backup on Certkingdom B. Restore the backup to Certkingdom A.
B. Restore the most recent full database backup and all transaction logs made since the
full backup was made.
C. Restore only the most recent transaction log backup.
D. Detach the Sales database on Certkingdom B. Copy the database file to Certkingdom A, and
attach the database on both servers.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Detaching the database will not apply to the minimal impact on users
as it will be offline during copy. Restoring only the latest transaction log will not
give you a working database and restoring last full backup and all transaction logs
after that will not apply to the restore normal operations as quickly as possible part
of the requirements.

QUESTION 7
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. The company runs a popular
database-driven Web site against a SQL Server 2005 computer named Certkingdom B. You
need to ensure a quick response time and appropriate audit trail in the event that
Certkingdom B experiences excessive traffic due to denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Which
two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A. Configure the new performance alert to start a SQL Server Profiler trace.
B. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Current Bandwidth counter.
C. Configure the new performance alert to start a Network Monitor capture.
D. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Bytes Total/sec counter.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Using alerts, System Monitor tracks specific events and notifies you of
these events as requested. An alert log can monitor the current performance of
selected counters and instances for objects in SQL Server. When a counter exceeds
a given value, the log records the date and time of the event. An event can also
generate a network alert. Characteristic for a typical DoS attack is a large number
of Bytes/sec. Characteristic for a DDoS attack is also a large number of Bytes/sec
but also a large number of connections made from a large number of hosts.

QUESTION 8
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. One of the databases on a SQL
Server 2005 computer contains a stored procedure. Users run this stored procedure to
import data into a table. The stored procedure needs to use the TRUNCATE TABLE
command before importing new data into the table. However, the users who run the
stored procedure do not have permission to truncate the table. You need to provide a way
for the stored procedure to truncate the table before it imports new data. What should you
do?

A. Configure the stored procedure to use the EXECUTE AS command.
B. Configure the stored procedure to be owned by the same database user as the table.
C. Assign the users DELETE permission in the table.
D. Add the users to the db_datawriter fixed database role.

Answer: A

Explanation:
In SQL Server 2005 you can implicitly define the execution context of
the following user-defined modules: functions (except inline table-valued functions),
procedures, queues, and triggers. By specifying the context in which the module is
executed, you can control which user account the SQL Server 2005 Database Engine
uses to validate permissions on objects that are referenced by the module. This
provides additional flexibility and control in managing permissions across the object
chain that exists between user-defined modules and the objects referenced by those
modules. Permissions must be granted to users only on the module itself, without
having to grant them explicit permissions on the referenced objects. Only the user
that the module is running as must have permissions on the objects accessed by the
module.
Syntax:
Functions (except inline table-valued functions), Stored Procedures, and DML Triggers
{ EXEC | EXECUTE } AS { CALLER | SELF | OWNER | 'user_name' }

QUESTION 9
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. You have separate SQL Server 2005
development and production environments. You use the Business Intelligence
Development Studio to create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package in your
development environment. Then, you use the SSIS package to import data into your
development environment from one of your company's trading partners. You need to
deploy the SSIS package to your production environment. Your production environment
uses different table names than your development environment. What should you do?

A. Save the SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to a file. Copy the file to the
production server. Configure the SSIS package on the production server to use the new
file.
B. Back up the master database and restore it to the production server. Rename the
appropriate tables inside the master database.
C. Create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package configuration. Build a
deployment utility. Copy the deployment folder for your SSIS project to your production
server. Execute the manifest file.
D. Back up the msdb database and restore it to the production server. Rename the
appropriate tables inside the msdb database.

Answer: C

Explanation:
You have to use a SSIS package to accomplish this but you can not use
the package built for your development environment as the table names differ.

QUESTION 10
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. You notice that one of the data files
on a SQL Server 2005 computer is corrupted. You need to restore the database from the
most recent set of backups. You want to perform this task as quickly as possible, with a
minimum loss of data. What should you do first?

A. Restore the most recent transaction log backup.
B. Restore the most recent full database backup.
C. Perform a full database backup.
D. Perform a transaction log backup.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In order to restore from the most recent set of backups, you have to
first ensure that you can restore all transactions that have occurred between the
time of the backup and the time when the database went corrupt. In order to
accomplish this you should backup the transaction log.

Microsoft MCTS Certification, MCITP Certification and over 2000+
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Microsoft 70-445 Q & A / Study Tools

2011-12-06T12:46:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package has the following features:
Two Data Flow tasks and two Control Flow tasks
A success constraint between each Data Flow task and the subsequent Control Flow task
The package uses one transaction for all the tasks.
You need to configure the package so that the two Data Flow tasks use their own transactions.
You also need to ensure that each Control Flow task is enlisted in the same transaction as its
preceding Data Flow task.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)

A. Change the TransactionOption property to Supported for the package.
B. Change the TransactionOption property to Required for the package.
C. Change the TransactionOption property to Supported for each Data Flow task.
D. Change the TransactionOption property to Required for each Data Flow task.
E. Change the TransactionOption property to Supported for each Control Flow task.
F. Change the TransactionOption property to Required for each Control Flow task.

Answer: A, D, E

QUESTION 2
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package. The
package contains 30 Data Flow tasks and 30 Control Flow tasks. The package runs slower than
expected. You need to capture the start time the finish time and the elapsed time for the
validation and execution of the package. What should you do?

A. Enable the OnProgress event handler and use the Control Flow tasks to write the information
to a log.
B. Monitor the Progress tab during the execution of the package, and then monitor the
Execution Results tab.
C. Use the Performance Monitor tool to capture the counters from the SQL Server SSIS Service
object. Analyze the output for the required information.
D. Use the Performance Monitor tool to capture the counters from the SQL Server: SSIS
Pipeline object. Analyze the output for the required information.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) is installed on your workstation. Microsoft
Business Intelligence Development Studio (BIDS) is not installed on your workstation.
You need to create a package that must meet the following requirements:
It must be transactional.
It must be optimized for 20 tables.
It must be stored securely in the msdb database of a remote server.
What should you do?

A. Create the package by using DTS Designer.
B. Create the package by using the Package Migration Wizard.
C. Create the package by using the Microsoft SQL Server Import and Export Wizard.
D. On the Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) menu, click the Create
Package submenu.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
While testing, a Transact-SQL user-defined function causes duplicate key values that stop the
transformation.
To permit the transformation to continue, the package must perform the following tasks:
1. Ascertain which rows are affected.
2. Insert the rows that fail into a table.
3. Continue with the process.
You need to change certain properties in the package to meet the requirements.
Which three tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)

A. Choose the Redirect Row option for the Error property on the key column.
B. Choose the Ignore Failure option for the Error property on the key column.
C. Choose the Fail Component option for the Error property on the key column.
D. Add a DataReader source to use a new Data Flow destination when the Failure constraint is fired.
E. Add a DataReader source to use a new Data Flow destination when the Completion
constraint is fired.
F. Edit the Error Output properties for each DataReader source and configure each data source for error handling.

Answer: A, D, F

QUESTION 5
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses at least one sequence container in one transaction. Each transaction controls
a Data Flow task and a Control Flow task. Each Data Flow task has a Success constraint.
The Control Flow task follows the Success constraint. The package must include the following
requirements:
Each Data Flow task must use its own transaction.
The Control Flow task and the Data Flow task that precedes it must succeed or fail as an atomic unit.
A restart point must restart each Data Flow task and the Control Flow task that follows it as an
atomic unit.
You need to make changes in the control flow designer to meet the outlined requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A. Add all the Data Flow tasks and the Control Flow tasks to one sequence container.
B. Add a sequence container for each Control Flow task and the Data Flow task that precedes it.
C. Change the FailPackageonFailure property to true for each new sequence container that is
added to the package.
D. Change the FailPackageonFailure property to false for each new sequence container that is
added to the package.

Answer: B, C

QUESTION 6
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package. An
Analysis Services Processing task in the package requires data from a file. The file is exported to
a file share.
If the file is not available on the file share, the Analysis Services Processing task must import data
from a remote Microsoft SQL Server 2005.
You need to add steps to the package to import the data.
What should you do?

Answer:

QUESTION 7
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The OLE DB data source for the package is a database that is updated frequently.
You need to create a package that accomplishes the following tasks:
Implement the IRowsetFastLoad interface.
Support various data flow destinations.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A. Use an OLE DR data flow destination.
B. Use a Recordset data flow destination.
C. Use a DataReader data flow destination.
D. Create separate data flow destinations within the same Data Flow task.

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 8
Your company's business intelligence (BI) model uses Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration
Services (SSIS). There are 20 packages that use the same configuration. The package
configuration is stored in an XML file as a variable.
You need to track the changes that affect a package that uses one variable. You also need to
modify the package to provide automatic notification by e-mail whenever there are changes to the
variable.
What should you do?

Answer:

QUESTION 9
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package contains a single OLE DB data source. The package must be deployed on 10
servers. The package uses the XML configuration file to connect to a pre-assigned server.
You need to ensure that the package uses the correct server at runtime
What should you do?

Answer:

QUESTION 10
You are designing a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Integration Services (SSIS) package. The
package is named UpdateTable.dtsx and contains a variable named runlD. The package must
run by using the dtexec utility. The runlD variable must be set at runtime to a value of 5. You need
to meet the outlined requirements. What should you do?

A. Execute dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx" /SET
\packages.variables[runlD].Value;5.
B. Execute dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx" /SET \packages.variables.runlD=5.
C. Create a text file that specifies the variable name and value in the format
package.variables[runlD].Value = 5. Execute dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx"
/COM where is the name of the file you just created.
D. Create a text file that specifies the variable name and value in the format runlD=5. Execute
dtexec /F "c:\ssisPackages\UpdateTable.dtsx" /COM where is the
name of the text file you just created.

Answer: A

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IBM 000-050 Q & A / Study Guide

2011-12-04T06:37:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
The list of test environments can be used for what purpose?

A. to automatically locate resources containing the specified environments
B. to automatically generate the actual test environments needed to run specific tests
C. to automatically select available machines during test execution
D. to automatically create unique test logs for each environment

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In the Requirements section of the test plan, what happens when you click on the green plus sign icon?

A. A new requirement is added to the test plan.
B. An existing requirement is added to the test plan.
C. A requirement is imported into the test plan.
D. test case is created from the requirement.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
When generating a new test execution record from the Test Execution Record section of an open
test case, which tabs does the Advanced Properties link show?

A. One-way, Pair-wise, and Four-way Interaction
B. Test Plan, Test Suite, and Test Environment
C. Lab resources, Reservations, and Milestones
D. Inclusions, Exclusions, and Weightings

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Quality Objectives defined in the System Properties can be used in which sections of the test
plan?

A. Business Objectives, Test Objectives, and Quality Objectives
B. Business Objectives, Test Environments, and Quality Objectives
C. Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Quality Objectives
D. Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Business Objectives

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You can copy content from an external document and paste it into which sections of the test plan?

A. Summary, Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria
B. Summary, Pre-Condition, and Post-Condition
C. Summary, Quality Objectives, and Resources
D. Summary, Business Objectives, and Test Objectives

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which Custom Reporting component stores the reports, data source connections, and server and
user preferences?

A. Data Warehouse
B. WebSphere Application Server
C. Framework Manager
D. Content Store

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about review processes?

A. Authorization is off by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as Pending.
B. Authorization is on by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as Pending.
C. Authorization is off by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as New.
D. Authorization is on by default; new Task-Review work items are listed as New.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Who typically creates the test plan initially with Rational Quality Manager?

A. Test Lab Manager
B. Test Engineer
C. Test Manager
D. Project Manager

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What does the Platform Coverage tab of the Test Environments section show?

A. a list of platforms that will be supported for all test cases
B. a list of test execution records that will be generated for the test plan
C. a non-binding list of platforms the user plans to cover
D. a binding list of platforms that must be covered in the test plan

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three platforms are supported by the data warehouse server of IBM Rational Insight?
(Choose three.)

A. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
C. SUSE Linux
D. Red Hat Linux

Answer: A,B,D

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HP HP0-728 Q & A / Study Guide

2011-12-03T07:04:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
What is a Continuous Access EVA copy set?

A. a set of DR groups selected for the purpose of managing the groups
B. a group ofVdisks that transition to the same state simultaneously
C. a bound set of twoVdisks used for long distance replication
D. a set of two or more cluster nodes created as part of a stretch cluster

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
How should Vdisks for Continuous Access be preferred?

A. split theVdisk in the DR group between the controllers for load balancing
B. allVdisks in the DR group to the same controller
C. split theVdisk in the EVA between the controllers for load balancing
D. allVdisks in the same disk group to the same controller

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The log disk collects host writes for _____.

A. managed sets
B. sourceVdisks
C. entire copy set
D. destinationVdisks

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two can be failed over during a Continuous Access EVA planned or unplanned event?
(Choose two.)

A. a single HSV controller
B. copy set
C. managed set
D. DR group

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 5
Which two inputs does the Continuous Access EVA Replication Performance Estimator require?
(Choose two.)

A. one-wayintersite latency
B. throughput per second
C. two-wayintersite latency
D. size of a read data packet
E. size of the write data packet
F. number of IO’s per second

Answer: A,E

QUESTION 6
A customer has a high availability Continuous Access EVA environment. All DR groups are set to
failsafe mode enabled. The source site array has a hardware failure and all DR groups are failed
over to the destination site. The hardware failure is then fixed.
Which two commands need to be set to restore normal operations at the source site? (Choose
two.)

A. failback
B. suspend
C. failsafe mode enable
D. resume
E. failover

Answer: C,E

QUESTION 7
Where is the Business Copy (BC) server component installed in the diagram?

A. Storage Management Appliance (Node 1)
B. storage array
C. host (Node 2)
D. desktop with web browser

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
In Continuous Access EVA, which statement is true?

A. Synchronous mode allows for more data loss than asynchronous mode.
B. A copy set’s mode is set to synchronous/asynchronous mode.
C. All copy sets within a DR group are either synchronous or asynchronous.
D. Asynchronous mode means an I/O acknowledgement is sent to the host after data is written to
the sourceVdisk and destination Vdisk.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are creating a DR group for a database.
Which disk group is used for the write history log for the database DR group?

A. 3 TB database disk group with 1 TB of free space
B. an empty disk group with 2 TB of space
C. a new disk group will get created for the log disk
D. 5 TB windows disk group with 2 TB of occupied space

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
CORRECT TEXT
Which icon denotes a failed-over DR group?

Answer: B

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Free Comptia HT0-102 Q & A / Study Guide

2011-11-23T04:12:00.000-08:00

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following serial protocols allows the daisy chaining of devices

A. Fire Wire
B. RS-232
C. RS-422
D. RS-485

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a requirement of a home automation system that allows the system to
be set up for out of band remote maintenance from an off-site location

A. Dial-in modem
B. Local terminal
C. Infrared remote
D. Wireless access point

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a support that is mounted to the backboard and used to manage cables

A. Conduit
B. 66 block
C. D-ring
D. Cable tray

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A technician is programming the locations for 802.11 devices used in home automation. Which
of the following describes the Layer 2 address of the OSI model

A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. X10 address
D. 802.11 address

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The design of a system requires a wall-mounted control device that works with a RS-485 based
control processor. Control needs to be available at 16 locations. The interface should allow the
technician to customize the menu options with icons and text associated with each of the push
buttons. Which of the following meets the design criteria

A. Web pad
B. LCD keypad
C. If remove control
D. Touch screen controller

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
One of the devices used to control a multimedia center uses serial communications to receive
instructions from he system controller. The device needs to be tested off-line, and it has been
disconnected from the system controller. A notebook computer equipped wit ha serial port is
available for testing. Which of the following cables will complete the connection

A. Coaxial
B. Patch
C. Telephone
D. Null-modem

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
An integrated home automation system is being designed to use a personal computer equipped
with a single IEEE 1394 port. What is the total number of devices that additional ports are
needed

A. 23
B. 43
C. 63
D. 83

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following methods offer protection from attenuation in larger installations using an
X10 protocol to control devices

A. IR repeater
B. Signal bridge
C. RS-232 to RS-485 converter
D. 75 ohm to 100 ohm converter

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The IEEE 1394 interface is commonly referred to as

A. SCSI
B. FireWireTM
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Gigabit Ethernet

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following standards has the greatest maximum distance from the central office of
the telephone company to the home

A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. IDSL
D. G.SHDSL

Answer: C

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Twitter research: It's where the money and action is

2011-11-14T06:37:00.000-08:00

Wellesley College profs investigating social media information trustworthiness, while University of Cincinnati students want to help you party

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Two professors from Wellesley College’s Department of Computer science have been awarded a nearly half million dollar National Science Foundation grant to build an application that gauges the trustworthiness of information shared on social networks, and in particular Twitter.

"Users leave a digital trace behind when they make an announcement," says Eni Mustafaraj a visiting assistant professor who along with Computer Science Professor Panagiotis Metaxas earned attention last year for research into Twitter bombing used to influence voters during the 2010 Massachusetts special congressional election (and there work has been built upon in other states, such as Indiana). "The application will follow those digital traces to determine whether a message sender is reputable, allowing the user to make a determination about whether a message should be trusted."

NETWORK WORLD’S HOTTEST TECH ARGUMENTS: Allow social media vs. Ban social media at work

Determining the trustworthiness of information sources on social networks is becoming more important as more people rely on such information to make financial, medical and other decisions. The researchers had planned initially to focus on spammer identification, but have broadened their effort to help social network users determine whether whatever information they are looking at should be trusted.

Factors going into trust measurement include past history of the originating sender, whether other Twitter users trust it and whether the same info is mysteriously surfacing from separate sources.

The NSF grant will also fund development of an online course to teach undergrads and high school students to think critically about information sources.

TWEETOGRAPHER IS BORN

Separately, a pair of University of Cincinnati computer science students will have to wait for their Twitter payday, but they’ve got a good start by creating a Web-based app called Tweetographer that helps users mine for useful data in Twitter about what’s going on in their area.

Billy Clifton and Alex Padgett’s "Tweetographer," their six-month senior project, is described as a real-time events guide extracted from information coming via large numbers of tweets. Their work included coming up with a queuing system to process the flood of tweets and deciphering shorthand used by tweeters for days of the week, locations and such.

"We wanted to explore data mining, which is an important area of research in Computer Science, in the context of social media," Padgett said, in a statement. "Although the concept will work with many social media platforms, Twitter was the most accessible. Everything is out there in public domain, a giant pool of untapped data, tagged with latitude and longitude. It’s very precise and lends itself to so many uses."

It’s possible that the Tweetographer might become publicly available by year-end as a Web app and mobile app, Clifton says: "We are working on giving the graphical user interface an overhaul, migrating servers, as well as some other maintenance."

Google -- Microsoft sues over Android because Windows Phone 7 has failed

2011-11-13T16:56:00.000-08:00

The war of words between Google and Microsoft has heated up even further, with Google's patent counsel essentially charging that the only reason Microsoft has been going after Android phone makers for patent infringement is because Microsoft's mobile phone strategy has failed. He also warns that the patent system is broken and may dramatically slow down innovation.

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Tim Porter, Google's patent counsel, was interviewed by SFGate. He pulls no punches about Microsoft's motivations for suing Android manufacturers, or threatening them with suits as a way to get them to pay royalties. He says:

This is a tactic that Microsoft has used in the past, with Linux, for example. When their products stop succeeding in the marketplace, when they get marginalized, as is happening now with Android, they use the large patent portfolio they've built up to get revenue from the success of other companies' products.

Porter takes aim not only at Microsoft, but at the entire patent system, and comes close to arguing that software simply shouldn't be patentable. First he says:

You can look at the development of the software industry and see a point when (software wasn't being patented) and it was a period of intense innovation. You didn't see Microsoft's first software patent until 1988. By that time it had come out with Word, not to mention DOS.

So there's just no question you can look back and see that innovation happens without patents. It's also true that since there weren't patents, there wasn't software patent litigation.

Then when asked point-blank whether software should be patentable, he hems and haws, not quite calling for an end to software patents:

I think the question is whether the current system makes sense. During the period I talked about, software was protected by copyright and other legal protections. There are certainly arguments those are more appropriate.

Microsoft, of course, takes a very different approach, and says that the infringing Android patents cost the company money, and all it's doing is getting paid fairly for its work.

And Microsoft gets paid very well, indeed, by Android manufacturers who have signed royalty agreements with it. Goldman Sachs estimates that Microsoft will get $444 million from Android royalties for fiscal year 2012. Microsoft Executive Vice President and General Counsel Brad Smith and Corporate Vice President and Deputy General Counsel Horacio Gutierrez write in a recent blog that the Android agreements:

...ensure respect and reasonable compensation for Microsoft's inventions and patent portfolio. Equally important, they enable licensees to make use of our patented innovations on a long-term and stable basis.

Who's right here, Google or Microsoft? In this instance, I can't say that I know. But I do know that in general Google is right that the patent system is broken when it comes to software, and needs to be significantly reformed. Google's Porter points out that

The period of intense patent assertions (against things like the steam engine) resulted in decades-long periods of stagnation. Innovation only took off when the patents expired.

Microsoft’s Virtual TechDays on September 28 – 30 , 2011

2011-11-01T13:58:00.000-07:00

Millions of developers: one call. The world's leading developer advertising group. Click Here!

Microsoft’s Virtual TechDays is back . The online event is scheduled to be held from September 28 to September 30 , 2011 .

This is the 12th Edition of Virtual TechDays and is an 3-day online event scheduled on 28th, 29th and 30th September, 2011 from 10.00 am to 05:45 pm Indian Standard Time .

There are various sessions for different tracks like

Developer
IT Professionals
Architect

Whats more , i could see few Windows Phone 7 sessions this time :)

Here’s are few sessions that i may attend depending on my schedule …

Developing 3D games for XBOX and Windows – XNA – by Ramaprasanna Chellamuthu, Ujjwal Kumar
Windows Phone 7 Mango for developers by Gowtham Prasad K N
Developing with MVC 3 and Code First Entity Framework Model by Harish Ranganathan
Building Windows Phone 7 apps for Windows Azure- Best Match with Cloud by Jebarson Jebamony
Build multi-Device applications using Push Notifications with Windows Azure by Saranya Sriram

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220-702 Exam Q & A

2011-10-31T06:40:00.000-07:00

QUESTION 1
A client can no longer print from their computer to the default printer. The client successfully prints
a test page directly from the printer. The printers queue shows the job ready to print. Which of the
following is the BEST recommendation that the technician can make?

A. Restart the print spooler service.
B. Delete the print job and resubmit it.
C. Verify the correct paper is being used.
D. Reinstall the printers drivers.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 2
Which of the following will occur if %temp% is executed from the run command?

A. The operating systems temporary folder will be opened.
B. Applications located the %temp% folder will be executed.
C. Applications will be deleted in the %temp% folder.
D. The current users temporary folder will be opened.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 3
A technician needs to upgrade memory on a laptop with one available memory slot. The type and
amount of memory has been confirmed to be correct. Once the new memory is added, the BIOS
reports the original memory size. Which of the following is the NEXT step to perform?

A. Replace all of the laptops memory.
B. Reseat the laptop memory.
C. Perform a Windows Update.
D. Replace the motherboard.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 4
Which of the following contains the user profile directory for Microsoft Windows 2000 and XP?

A. Users
B. My Documents
C. Documents and Settings
D. Application Data

Answer: C

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QUESTION 5
A technician needs to add an expansion card to a computer. The documentation with the card
states it requires a PCI x4 slot. The computer has PCI x1 and PCI x16 slots available. Which if the
following should the technician do?

A. The technician can install the card in a PCI x16 slot and get four times the performance.
B. The technician can install the card in a PCI x1 slot and get half the performance.
C. The technician can install the card in a PCI x16 slot with normal performance.
D. The technician can install the card is a PCI x1 slot and get normal performance.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 6
Which of the following is used to test all computer hardware before installing an operating system?

A. An operating system needs to be installed
B. POST card
C. Another computer
D. BIOS setting

Answer: B

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QUESTION 7
Which of the following should be installed to support Gigabit Ethernet within a home network?

A. 10Base2
B. 100Base2
C. 100BaseT
D. 1000BaseT

Answer: D

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QUESTION 8
A laptop LCD screen needs to be replaced. Which of the following tools would be BEST used to
open the case?

A. Flathead screwdriver
B. Plastic shim
C. Metal shim
D. Pliers

Answer: B

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QUESTION 9
A technician is dispatched to a malware infected system. Upon arrival, the technician notices the
malwares pop-up on the screen. Which of the following boot methods would the technician utilize?

A. Reboot in Safe Mode
B. Reboot in Recovery Console
C. Reboot in Last Known Good Configuration
D. Reboot in System Debug Mode

Answer: A

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QUESTION 10
Which of the following devices can assist a technician in troubleshooting computers that will not
start?

A. Anti-static pad
B. Loopback plug
C. ISA card
D. POST card

Answer: D

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220-701 Exam

2011-10-25T01:27:00.000-07:00

QUESTION 1
Which of the following RAID levels uses striping across three or more disks with parity?

A. RAID 1
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
A customer reports that while attempting to print a document it seems to queue up fine, but the
printer does not print the job. Which of the following may be the cause?

A. Outdated or corrupt print driver.
B. The application used to create the document is incompatible with the printer.
C. A print job is waiting in the print queue.
D. Printer configuration is incorrect.

Answer: C

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
A print job fails to leave the queue. Which of the following services may need to be restarted?

A. Printer Driver
B. Windows Spool Service
C. Print Spooler
D. NIC driver

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
A technicians company prints forms on multi-layer carbonless copy paper. When asked to replace
the printer, which of the following printing technologies will allow the technician to continue to use
the companys copy paper?

A. Transfer
B. Dot Matrix
C. Thermal
D. Laser

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
A customers computer crashes consistently when a specific application is launched. The
technician has looked at the computer and confirmed the cause of the crash. Which of the
following is the NEXT troubleshooting step the technician should take?

A. Verify full system functionality.
B. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.
C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
D. Question the user and identify changes the user has made to the system.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 6
Which of the following programs can be scheduled to delete unwanted compressed old files?

A. Disk Management
B. Check Disk
C. Disk Cleanup
D. Disk Defragmenter

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 7
Which of the following chipsets is responsible for controlling the data flow between a PATA optical
drive and the processor?

A. Northbridge
B. BIOS
C. Southbridge
D. DMA controller

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 8
A KVM will allow the user to:

A. prevent unauthorized users from removing devices from a computer.
B. network multiple computers to gain optimum use of system resources.
C. connect multiple computers to save on resources.
D. allow multiple users the ability to share a single computer.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 9
Which of the following bus slots is in a laptop?

A. AGP
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AMR

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 10
A technician is called to a school lab to fix a computer. The computer worked fine the day before,
but now does not power on. The computer is plugged into a power strip with another computer.
The other computer works fine. Which of the following could be the problem? (Select TWO).

A. The power strip is overloaded.
B. The monitor is unplugged.
C. The power cable is unplugged from the computer.
D. The power strip is unplugged.
E. The voltage switch on the computer is set incorrectly.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:

70-519 Exam

2011-10-14T14:39:00.000-07:00

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QUESTION 1
There is ASP NET 3.5 Web application CertKingdomApp.
You are required to upgrade CertKingdomApp to ASP.NET 4.0.
You need to make sure that CertKingdomApp is optimized for search engines.
In particular this optimization must include HTML that is generated by CertKingdomApp and URLs
local within CertKingdomApp.
Within CertKingdomApp there is a Data List control CertKingdomC.
CertKingdomApp must be able to load data at runtime into CertKingdomC with the help of the current
URL.
What is appropriate in this scenario? Select four.

A. Use property Repeat Layout of..
B. Use property Data List Layout of..
C. Use property Render Outer table Layout of..
D. ..Web Forms routing and set the property to…
E. .. permanent redirect and set the property to..
F. .. temporary redirect and set the property to..
G. ..Null..
H. ..True..
I. ..False..
J. ..Table..
K. ..List..
L. .. on all list controls.
M. ..on all controls.
N. .. all Form View controls.

Answer: B,D,I,N

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
There a ASP.NET MVC 2 application CertKingdomApp.
Consider unhandled exceptions.
CertKingdomApp must manage and log these unhandled exceptions.
What would be best to achieve this if you want to put the logic into a single place?

A. Use a custom Handle Error attribute to…
B. Use the default Handle Error attribute to…
C. For every method..
D. For each controller..
E. .. override the Exception method.
F. .. override the OneException method.
G. .. and apply it to all controllers.
H. ..use try and catch.

Answer: A,G

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
There is an ASP.NET Web application CertKingdomApp.
CertKingdomApp has pages that are available for public users.
CertKingdomApp has pages that are available for only administrative purposes.
Consider error handling code for these pages.
The same code must be used for the public pages and the administrative pages.
Errors must be handled in one way for the public pages and in another way for the administrative
pages.
How can this be achieved? Select two.

A. Use file Global.asax.cs (or Global.asax.vb)
B. Use file code-behind.
C. Use the Page_Error method(s).
D. ..for every public page and for every administrative page.
E. ..of the subclasses of System.Web.UI.Page.
F. ..of the subclasses of System.Web.URL.Page.
G. ..use the Application_error method.
H. .. for each master page.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
CertKingdom has multiple ASP.NET Web applications.
There is a class library CertKingdomLib that are used by all these application.
There is a variable CertKingdomVar in CertKingdomLib.
CertKingdomVar is within the helper class.
CertKingdomVar contains secret information.
CertKingdomVar must not be seen by developers debugging applications.
How can this be achieved?

Answer:

QUESTION 5
There is an ASP.NET Web application CertKingdomApp.
CertKingdomApp has a Menu Control CertKingdomMC.
For unauthorized users CertKingdomMC shows a menu of public pages.
For authorized users CertKingdomMC shows a menu of both public pages and some private pages.
For security you need to ensure that the private pages (both the menu options and the URLs) are
not shown to unauthorized user.
What is appropriate in this scenario? Select four.

A. The event handler..
B. The attribute..
C. The method..
D. The exception handler..
E. ..Page_Refresh should be used..
F. ..Page_Load should be used..
G. ..window.onload should be used..
H. ..window.update should be used..
I. ..window.onupdate should be used..
J. ..Page_Init should be used..
K. .. JavaScript document ready should be used..
L. ..VBS (or C# script) document ready should be used..
M. …to add pages to CertKingdomMC that are to be accessed by all users
N. ..to hide the private pages from the list of pages shown on CertKingdomMC.
O. ..to add pages to CertKingdomMC that are to be accessed by authorized users.
P. ..to add pages to CertKingdomMC that are to be accessed by unauthorized users.

Answer: C,F,O

Explanation:

QUESTION 6
There is an ASP.NET Web application CertKingdomApp.
A user of CertKingdomApp can send customized e-mails to several thousand receivers at a time
through a form CertKingdomForm.
CertKingdomApp has around 3000 users about half of which can be accessing CertKingdomApp at a
specific point of time.
How can you optimize the performance of CertKingdomApp? Select three.

A. Use the On Load method..
B. Use the On Click method..
C. ..of CertKingdomForm..
D. ..of CertKingdomApp..
E. ..as a separate process.
F. ..as multiple processes.
G. .. from the System.Net.Mail namespace classes.
H. .. from the System.Mail namespace classes.
I. .. from the Machine.Web.Mail namespace classes.
J. .. from the System.Web.Mail namespace classes.

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 7
There is an ASP.NET Web application CertKingdomApp.
CertKingdomApp is used to edit pictures online within your web browser.
Clients can upload pictures to CertKingdomApp.
Clients can edit the uploaded pictures through special features CertKingdomApp.
Some of these features are very computationally demanding.
These specific features should be run on a GPU (Graphics Processing Unit).
Other features of CertKingdomApp, the ones that are not so CPU intensive, should be run on the
server.
Bandwidth usage is also a critical part of the required solution. It should be minimized.
What action should you take?

Answer:

QUESTION 8
There is an ASP.NET Web application CertKingdomApp.
You are required to enforce that CertKingdomApp is using data caching at all times.
You are required to enforce that CertKingdomApp keeps the session state at all points of time.
CertKingdomApp must maintain session state and data caching.
What is appropriate in this scenario? Select two.

A. Mixed process session state should be used.
B. out-of-process session state should be used.
C. in-process session state should be used.
D. in&out process session state should be used.
E. out-of-process transaction state should be used.
F. in-process transaction state should be used.
G. in&out process transaction state should be used.
H. input caching should be used.
I. output caching should be used.
J. Static caching should be used.
K. Caching should be enabled.
L. distributed caching should be used.
M. multiple caching should be used.

Answer: B,L

Explanation:

QUESTION 9
There is an ASP.NET Web application CertKingdomApp.
CertKingdomApp is rewritten.
Now CertKingdomApp should be deployed.
What is appropriate in this scenario? Select two or three.

A. Use a web pool..
B. Use an application pool…
C. Use a rewritten pool..
D. Use the global assembly cache…
E. ..which includes only ASP.NET 2.0, ASP.NET 3.0, ASP NET 3.5, and ASP.NET.4 Web
applications…
F. ..which includes only ASP.NET. 3.5 Web applications…
G. ..which includes only ASP.NET.4 Web applications…
H. ..which includes only ASP.NET 2.0, ASP.NET 3.0, and ASP NET 3.5Web applications…
I. ..which includes only ASP.NET 1.0, ASP.NET 2.0, ASP.NET 3.0, and ASP NET 3.5Web
applications…
J. ..and add CertKingdomApp to it.
K. .. and compile and deploy CertKingdomApp to it.
L. ..and deploy CertKingdomApp to it.

Answer: B,G,J

Explanation:

QUESTION 10
There is an ASP.NET Web application CertKingdomApp.
There is a MS SQL Server database CertKingdomDB on server CertKingdomSrv.
CertKingdomDB is used to store user authorization data.
CertKingdomDB also store some other secret information used by CertKingdomApp.
CertKingdomApp must not access CertKingdomSrv directly.
CertKingdomApp should not include programming code for authorization.
Some Web pages, the ones that displays secret information, should only show information for
authenticated users.
Visitors should only be able to see pages that do not contain any secret data.
Which type of solution should be used in this scenario?

A. Third party authentication solution.
B. SQL Service
C. WCF service.
D. Separate library.
E. Standard library
F. SQL XML Services.
G. SQL HTML Services.
H. stored procedures.

Answer: C

Explanation:

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N10-004 Exam

2011-10-04T04:09:00.000-07:00

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following ports is default for DNS?

A. 53
B. 69
C. 80
D. 143

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which of the following components would be used to terminate all distribution and trunk cables in
a central office or PBX?

A. 66 block
B. MDF
C. Demarc
D. IDF

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
A technician has received a call from a customer stating that the customer has logged in, but
cannot access the Internet. The technician asks the customer if the gateway and the firewall can
be pinged. This is an example of which of the following troubleshooting skills?

A. Information gathering
B. Implementing and testing
C. Escalation
D. Documenting the solution

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which of the following connectors uses 9-pins?

A. LC
B. RJ-45
C. RS-232
D. BNC

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which of the following ports does IPSec use, by default?

A. 53
B. 500
C. 3389
D. 8080

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 6
Which of the following components is used to terminate a T1 connection?

A. 66 block
B. Patch panel
C. Smart jack
D. 110 block

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 7
During a new employee briefing, employees are given copies of the network user agreement, the
company network policy, and other administrative forms. Which of the following is BEST practice
when granting users access to the companys network?

A. Access is granted once each user has signed the network user agreement.
B. Access is granted once the employee briefing is concluded.
C. Access is granted once the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) signs each network agreement.
D. Access is granted at the beginning of the employee briefing meeting.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 8
Which of the following protocols can be found at the transport layer?

A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. TCP
D. DNS

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the maximum sustainable distance for 100Base-FX?

A. 600 feet (183 meters)
B. 1.2 miles (1.93 kilometers)
C. 2.8 miles (4.5 kilometers)
D. 2,500 feet (762 meters)

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is used to relay queries from a private network to the Internet?

A. Content filter
B. Load balancer
C. Proxy server
D. Stateful firewall

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 11
Which of the following OSI layers is included in the TCP/IP models Application layer?

A. Data Link
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Network

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 12
A technician has been tasked to reduce the administrative time spent on the network. The network
uses several VLANs. Which of the following is a protocol that can be added to the switches to help
reduce administrative time?

A. MTU
B. WLAN
C. SIP
D. VTP

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 13
Which of the following tools could an administrator use to determine a workstations default
gateway?

A. route
B. nslookup
C. dig
D. ping

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 14
Which of the following routing protocols is based on being open and takes the shortest path
FIRST?

A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. IS-IS

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 15
An administrator needs to obtain the MAC address of all systems on a small SOHO network.
Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish this?

A. Run nslookup for each IP address.
B. ARP each IP, then look in the ping table.
C. ARP poison the router, then run a network sniffer.
D. Ping each IP then look in the ARP table.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is an example of CIDR notation?

A. ::1
B. 10.10.10.0/30
C. 10.192.30.5:22
D. 255.255.255.0

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 17
Which of the following should be used to extend the range of a network between two points where
physical media cannot be installed?

A. WAP
B. Bridge
C. Hub
D. Router

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 18
Installing specialized devices in between network resources and the Internet to distribute network
requests and ensure availability of resources is an example of which of the following network
management techniques?

A. Port mirroring
B. Load balancing
C. Port address translation
D. QoS

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 19
An administrator needs to cut a 100 pair wire in half. Which of the following tools should the
administrator use?

A. Cable stripper
B. Snips
C. Punch down tool
D. Crimper

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 20
Which of the following wireless technologies uses point-to-multipoint for data transmission?

A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 21
Which of the following naming conventions takes place in the data link layer of the OSI model and
is often used in conjunction with IPv6?

A. MAC-48
B. EUI-48
C. EUI-64
D. IP address

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 22
An administrator needs to determine if the local workstation is using DHCP. Which of the following
tools would verify this?

A. hostname
B. netstat
C. ipconfig
D. nbtstat

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 23
A technician is setting up a network for 25 users at a remote location. All of the users share a
single Internet connection. The ISP provides a single IP address for the location. Which of the
following addressing mechanisms should the technician use to provide access and IP addresses
for all 25 users?

A. NAT
B. Proxy
C. Gateway
D. DNS

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is MOST likely to be used for telephone wires connected to the plain old
telephone service (POTS)?

A. 66 block
B. 110 block
C. CAT6 patch panels
D. Smart jacks

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 25
Which of the following would an administrator do NEXT once an action plan has been created?

A. Find new symptoms and issues.
B. Identify more areas that may be affected.
C. Determine if escalation is necessary.
D. Implement the plan and test it.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 26
An office is using 802.11a to network the entire office. When a visitor brings a personal laptop to
the office, the visitor is not able to connect to the network. Which of the following is the reason why
visitors are unable to connect?

A. Weak signal
B. Standard mismatch
C. Incorrect channel
D. Wrong DNS

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 27
172.20.0.112 represents an address at which of the following layers of the OSI model?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 28
An administrator needs to create a subnet that will accommodate up to 4000 hosts on the same
subnet but not more than 6000. Which of the following network addresses would the administrator
use to accommodate this request?

A. 10.4.4.0/22
B. 10.10.1.0/19
C. 172.31.146.0/20
D. 192.168.100.0/23

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 29
Which of the following logical topologies uses distributed authentication?

A. Client/server
B. VLAN
C. VPN
D. P2P

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 30
A helpdesk team is unable to agree on a solution to an issue. Each technician presents their own
solution to the problem. When a solution is agreed upon, which of the following documentation
MOST likely needs to be reviewed and possibly updated?

A. Baseline
B. Wiring Schematics
C. Procedures
D. Regulations

Answer: C

Explanation:

Linux in education: a genuine alternative

2011-09-16T14:30:00.000-07:00

In Depth: People who have made free software work and pay in education

Using free software in education is not just about saving money. It’s also about preserving choice, not locking a student’s experience into a certain way of doing something Comptia A+ Certification 220-301 exam training.

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With Linux, there’s no vendor lock-in. Free software is more likely to be open-standards compliant, and it’s going to be more open to different languages, localities and curricula.

It also removes what can sometimes be a barrier to learning; using the same software on your own machine at home. And because there’s usually more than one piece of open source software for a job, free software makes it easier to broaden your experience and look at a variety of methods for completing that job.

All of which is essential in a world where technology is turned on its head every five years and where training needs are so unpredictable. It’s also never too early to start training in IT skills, and in the UK at least, computer training starts for many at primary school level.

For some, this will be their first experience of a computer. It’s also likely to be the first time they’ve had any kind of formal training on how to use one, and these first impressions are going to last. So there’s a strong argument that teaching should be as unbiased as possible.

Yet for a variety of reasons most schools favour Microsoft. There’s nothing wrong with this, as experience with Microsoft’s ubiquitous products is never going to be wasted, but as Linux users, we all know there might be a better option.

Linux and open source offers a genuine alternative, with many advantages over proprietary training that aren’t costrelated, although there’s no reason why this can’t be part of the overall solution.

Early starter

The best thing about Linux training in education is that there are already people doing it. There are establishments up and down the UK that have decided to include Linux on their syllabus and make a concerted effort to provide their students with the choice.

So if you’re a parent frustrated with the lack of options for your child, or you’re maybe a student who wants to learn Linux skills from the outset, there are places to go and people to speak to. They may be able to help you make the difference. But even if you can’t influence the training regime at your local establishment, Linux can still play a part.

Unlike in schools, Linux and open source software isn’t badly served by professional training. It’s this kind of training that pits Linux against Microsoft’s certification, and it’s the kind that prepares IT people for the real tasks they face while dealing with Linux systems.

The Linux Professional Institute, for example, has been dishing out qualifications for over 10 years, and its LPI certification levels have become something of a standard for Linux system administrators.

LPIC-1, for instance, covers all the basics of running and maintaining a simple Linux system, from dealing with the command line and helping new users to installing, configuring and connecting a workstation to the network. But more importantly, you don’t need any prior experience before starting on the course, and this has made it a great entry point for some of the more adventurous schools in the UK.

Case study 1

Barnfield College in Luton, Bedfordshire, is an establishment that offers plenty of further education opportunities for students to take on to a university or workplace. The college has a well-established computing curriculum, including all the common Microsoft applications, web design and data management.

Barnfield

But more interestingly for us, it also offers a comprehensive range of Linux courses, including an Introduction to the desktop, and uses Linux as the basis for some of its web development programmes.

John O’Neill, deputy head of Computing and IT at Barnfield, told us a little about how Linux training became part of the prospectus,

“Barnfield College has been offering Linux training courses since 2004. Back then it was an in house-devised course running Red Hat 5.2. Over time we have evolved our provision to include a range of distributions including Damn Small Linux, SLAX, Debian, Ubuntu, Fedora and OpenSUSE.

“Barnfield College has always prided itself on offering courses at the forefront of technologies. In the early part of the decade the college was an established Novell house using Netware 5. Students were given the opportunity to build and manage Netware servers as part of their coursework. Novell’s acquisition of OpenSUSE inspired the teaching staff to investigate this new contender to Network Operating Systems,” he told us.

When we asked him what the biggest challenge had been in supporting Linux alongside more mainstream operating systems, his answer was a logistical one, rather than a philosophical one:

“The biggest problem to the teaching team has been the need for maintaining adequate Network Security on our corporate network, while gaining access to Linux repositories. This has been resolved by the introduction of a dedicated teaching LAN with its own access to the internet.”

The breadth of Linux training offered at Barnfield is also significant, covering both user and administrator roles.

“Linux is integrated into the majority of our course provision and is used to teach students ranging from Level 2 user qualifications through to foundation degree and, of course, the vendor qualifications,” O’Neill explained. “Interest in these courses remains high due to the tutor’s passion and the ability for students to create their own distributions. The Barnix live CD being one such incarnation. This was developed by two of our 18-year-old BTEC National Diploma students back in 2004,” he added proudly.

The Barnix distribution can still be found on Distrowatch, and despite being around six years old, still looks in good shape for a distribution built around a technology that’s no longer available, in an attempt to ape an operating system that’s no longer supported.

But it’s the potential to access new technology without having to jump through software acquisition hoops that also makes Linux a good choice. As O’Neill put it:

“Linux gives our students unparalleled access to technologies ranging from VoIP through to in-depth security testing along with traditional desktop usage.” This is why the college has extended its Linux courses to integrate LPI-based certification alongside the CompTIA accreditation the college has offered for sometime, as O’Neill explained:

“Following the inclusion of LPI with CompTIA, Linux+, which the college has traditionally delivered, now simplifies vendor certification for students, and not only meets the requirements of industry partners, but also gives a clear pathway to certification.”

Which leaves the most important question. If you want your child to study Linux at their local institution, how should parents and interested parties make it happen?

“Colleges can use Linux across the range of their curriculum. It gives learners access to both GUI and command line interfaces, and even Microsoft is revisiting the command line with their Power Shell interface,” he states.

“Tutors need to be aware that Awarding Bodies will accept evidence obtained from many different operating systems as part of their coursework. Students and parents can be assured that skills learnt through the use of open source operating systems and applications only serve to better demonstrate the breadth of knowledge they have of cutting-edge technologies used in all business sectors.”

Microsoft releases 'complete' Mango SDK

2011-09-14T02:02:00.000-07:00

New app creation tools offered up to developers

Microsoft has made its third big Windows Phone Mango announcement of the last 24 hours by releasing a “more complete” build of the operating system to assist app developers 70-640 Training .

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Earlier on Wednesday we learned that the Fujitsu Toshiba IS12T will be the first handset to boast Mango, featuring a 13.2mp camera, 32GB internal storage and an 800x480p, 3.7-inch display.

Yesterday Microsoft revealed it had finished work on the long-awaited OS upgrade and had handed the completed build over to manufacturers.

Now app developers will have access to an all new version of the SDK in order to create new and exciting applications for the Mango platform before its launch this autumn.

More complete build

Senior Product Manager for Windows Phone Cliff Simpkins said on the company blog: “We’ve received positive feedback on the Mango tools and bits we’ve shared, but appreciate that many devs are still interested in working with a more complete build.

“Today’s refresh of the tools represent a month of great progress by the engineering team, further refining and improving the Mango developer experience.

“What we are providing is a genuine release candidate build, with enough code checked in and APIs locked down that this OS is close enough to RTM that, as a developer, it’s more than capable to see you through the upcoming RC drop of the tools and app submission Microsoft Free MCTS Training and MCTS Online Training.”

Although much of the smoke has cleared, and the Mango picture is now much more illuminated than it was just yesterday, we still don’t know when the first handset will arrive in the UK.

Come on Microsoft, throw us a freakin’ bone here.

CompTIA A-Plus Training Programs Examined

2011-09-07T15:42:00.000-07:00

Training for your CompTIA A+ has four specialist sections – you’ll need exam certification in 2 different areas to be seen as competent in A+. For this reason, the majority of colleges restrict their A+ to just two of the training options. We think this is selling you short – sure, you can pass an exam, but experience of all four will set you apart in your working life, where you’ll need to know about all of them. That’s why we believe you require information in everything.

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Qualifying in CompTIA A+ on its own will give you the ability to repair and fix laptops, Macs and PC’s; principally ones that aren’t joined to a network – essentially the domestic or small business sector. If you add Network+ training, you’ll also have the ability to take care of networks, which means you’ll be able to move further up the career path.

We can’t make a big enough deal out of this point: Always get full 24×7 professional support from mentors and instructors. You will have so many problems later if you let this one slide. Don’t accept certification programs which can only support trainees through a message system after office-staff have gone home. Trainers will try to talk you round from this line of reasoning. Essentially – you need support when you need support – not when it’s convenient for them.

Keep looking and you’ll come across professional companies that offer direct-access support all the time – no matter what time of day it is. You can’t afford to accept anything less. Online 24×7 support is the only kind to make the grade when it comes to computer-based study. Maybe burning the midnight-oil is not your thing; but for the majority of us however, we’re out at work when traditional support if offered.

The world of information technology is one of the more thrilling and changing industries that you could be a part of. To be working on the cutting-edge of technology puts you at the fore-front of developments affecting everyone who lives in the 21st century. Technological changes and connections on the web is going to noticeably alter our lifestyles in the near future; overwhelmingly so.

Incomes in IT are not a problem moreover – the usual income in the UK for a typical person working in IT is noticeably higher than in other market sectors. Chances are that you’ll receive a much better deal than you could reasonably hope to get in other industries. The search for properly certified IT professionals is certain for many years to come, due to the constant development in the technology industry and the very large deficiency still in existence.

Ask any knowledgeable consultant and they can normally tell you many worrying experiences of how students have been duped by salespeople. Only deal with an experienced industry advisor who asks lots of questions to uncover the best thing for you – not for their pay-packet! You need to find the right starting point of study for you. With some real-world experience or base qualifications, it may be that your starting point of study is very different to someone completely new. It’s usual to start with some basic user skills first. It can brush up on your current abilities and make the slope up to the higher-levels a less steep.

Authorised exam preparation and simulation materials are essential Free MCTS Training and MCTS Online Training – and really must be supplied by your training company. Due to the fact that many examination boards in IT tend to be American, you’ll need to be used to the correct phraseology. You can’t practice properly by simply answering any old technical questions – they have to be in the same format as the actual exams. Ensure that you have some simulated exam questions so you’ll be able to check your comprehension at any point. Simulated or practice exams add to your knowledge bank – so you’re much more at ease with the real thing.

Field Service Technician

2011-08-29T04:15:00.000-07:00

The Field Technician II is responsible for troubleshooting and resolving user support requests and incidents for customers of NSPI*s managed services. The technician may field incidents via phone, email, or ticket escalations from a central service desk - and will act as the primary dispatch support mechanism for assigned customer/s. The Field Technician may be assigned to work primarily out of one or more customer office locations Monday through Friday during standard business hours, and may be required to be *on-call* for after hour*s dispatches. Regardless of technology or nature of request, the Field Technician will act as a first level escalation point, sometimes acting as primary point of contact, tracking requests for resolution or escalation and keeping customers continuously informed of status. Requests will primarily consist of user, local application, and desktop problems of varying platforms and providers. Experience will be heavily focused on desktop systems, commercial applications, network devices, and related current technologies.

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REQUIRED QUALIFICATIONS / TECHNICAL SKILLS
To perform this job successfully an individual must be able to perform each essential duty satisfactorily. The requirements listed below are representative of the knowledge, skill, and/or ability required.
* Advanced: 4+ years experience providing desktop support on Apple platforms (MacOS, iOS)
* Advanced: 4+ years experience providing desktop support on Windows based workstations
* Intermediate: Experience troubleshooting network connectivity on LANs, WANs, and WLANs
* Intermediate: Knowledge of system components and how they are used
* Intermediate: Experience using Desktop Remote Control/Management software tools
* Intermediate: Experience troubleshooting network printers
* Basic: Experience with using Active Directory for password resets, group membership, domain membership, etc
* Excellent oral and written communication skills and customer focused demeanor
* Proven ability to work well with a team, manage stressful situations and show initiative.
PREFERRED QUALIFICATIONS / TECHNICAL SKILLS
The following skills are preferred and helpful, but not required
* Experience working in a Service Provider environment or a large enterprise
* Experience configuring and supporting mobile devices
* Experience with Networking Protocols and Troubleshooting Network-related issues
* Experience with one or more of the following enterprise applications: Exchange Server, Citrix, CRM or ERP applications.
* Familiarity with ITIL v3 concepts and methods

EDUCATION and/or EXPERIENCE
* 4+ years of related experience in a technical support role
* Preferred Computer Science or Information Technology Degree, 2 or 4 year Degree
* Preferred technical certifications, one or more: Apple, Microsoft, Cisco, or CompTIA certs
CERTIFICATES, LICENSES, REGISTRATIONS: Specific technical and/or OEM oriented training and associated certification(s) may be required to obtain while in this role.
ESSENTIAL DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES
Technical Deployment and Maintenance:
* Onsite contact for all technical problems, service requests, and inquires.
* Primary internal escalation resource for central service desk.
* Supplement central service desk with remote call handling as volume and staffing requires.
* Utilize available resources to resolve onsite customer issues as quickly as possible.
* First-level contact for all incoming technical incidents, service requests, and inquires.
* Identifies and resolves recurring internal and customer desktop issues
* Ability to assess technical and business impact of an IT incident
Communication:
* Responsible for making regular status updates to customers on a variety of service requests and incidents
* Verbal and written communication skills must be professional level and business oriented
* Regular communications with customers is required (both verbal and email)
* Keep customer updated on ticket status, problem resolution, or inquiries.
Administration:
* Documentation of hours and work details in order to track efficiency and billing is required
* Maintain customer technical information within defined documentation standards.
* Use of ticketing / work management system to track issue and project task status
* Prioritizes ticket workload and dispatch assignments based on customer and technical impact.
* Participates in scheduled and ad hoc internal and customer specific meetings.
Personal:
* Dependable and eager to learn cutting-edge technologies
* Ability to work on multiple concurrent assignments is essential
* Strong self-motivation and the ability to work with minimal supervision
PHYSICAL DEMANDS and WORK ENVIRONMENT: The job involves light physical work demands requiring lifting and/or carrying items up to 20 lbs. maximum; heavier items will lifted/carried with assistance from another person or by using appropriate handling equipment. The physical demands and work environment characteristics described here are representative of those that must be met by an employee to successfully perform the essential functions of this job. Reasonable accommodations may be made to enable individuals with disabilities to perform the essential functions.

After 30 years, IBM says PC going way of vacuum tube and typewriter

2011-08-14T17:15:00.000-07:00

Post-PC era? Microsoft says no

While that sounds pretty vague, Dean notes that IBM has boosted its profit margins since selling off its PC division with a strategy of exiting commodity businesses and "expanding in higher-value markets." One example: IBM's Watson, newly crowned Jeopardy champion.

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"We conduct fundamental scientific research, design some of the world's most advanced chips and computers, provide software that companies and governments run on, and offer business consulting, IT services and solutions that enable our clients to transform themselves continuously, just like we do," Dean writes.

For all the debate over whether this is a "post-PC" era, it's clear more people today own Windows computers and Macs than smartphones and tablets, and our new mobile devices are complementing desktops and laptops rather than replacing them.

It's hard to beat the convenience of an easy-to-use, Internet-connected device in one's pocket, but many tasks are cumbersome without a full, physical keyboard. Even social media, which seems as "post-PC" as it gets upon first glance, requires a lot of typing.

Some people envision a future where a smartphone is the hub of all your computing needs, and simply hooks into a dock for those rare times you want a bigger screen, mouse and keyboard. Others talk about a future where any surface, whether a wall or table, is transformed into a touch-screen computer with a snap of one's fingers.

For now, though, most people making these proclamations are typing their blog posts on PCs.

Microsoft's Smartphone Share Declines Again: Report

2011-08-07T15:49:00.000-07:00

Microsoft has experienced another smartphone market share decline, according to new data from research firm comScore.
Microsoft saw its smartphone market share decline in the three-month period ending in June, according to research firm comScore.

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Specifically, the company saw its share decline from 7.5 percent to 5.8 percent, over a period when both archrivals Google and Apple experienced gains. Research In Motion also dipped, from 27.1 percent to 23.4 percent.

ComScore also listed the top mobile OEMs, in descending order, as Samsung, LG Electronics, Motorola, Apple and RIM. Of those, Motorola and RIM experienced incremental declines, while the rest enjoyed equally slight gains.

Microsoft’s market share included both its antiquated Windows Mobile platform and the newer Windows Phone, which was supposed to reinvigorate the company’s fortunes in the smartphone space.

Instead, Windows Phone is showing signs of anemic adoption by consumers and businesses. According to data from Nielsen, Microsoft occupied some 9 percent of the U.S. smartphone market in June—trailing Google Android with 39 percent, Apple’s iPhone with 28 percent and RIM with 20 percent.

During a July 11 keynote speech at the company’s Worldwide Partner Conference, CEO Steve Ballmer described Windows Phone’s market share as “very small,” but insisted that other metrics (such as consumer satisfaction) boded well for the platform overall.

“Nine out of 10 people who bought Windows Phone would absolutely recommend it to a friend,” he said, reiterating a talking point voiced by many a Microsoft executive over the past few months. “People in the phone business seem to believe in us.”

Microsoft is hoping that its upcoming “Mango” update, which supposedly includes some 500 new tweaks and features, will help spur Windows Phone adoption. Mango reached its Release to Manufacturing milestone July 26. The next day, one of the company’s hardware partners revealed its first smartphone running the software: Fujitsu Toshiba Mobile Communications’ IS12T, which will offer a 3.7-inch screen paired to a 13.2-megapixel camera. It will arrive on Japanese store shelves by September or later, according to an IDG video uploaded to YouTube and posted on multiple news Websites, including PC World.

Samsung, HTC, LG Electronics and Nokia have all committed to building new Windows Phone devices preloaded with Mango, along with Acer and ZTE.

In the meantime, Microsoft has stayed reluctant to share any Windows Phone revenue numbers. The Seattle Post-Intelligencer recently dug into Microsoft’s annual U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission report and hypothesized that, after tinkering with the revenue numbers from the company’s Entertainment and Devices Division, Windows Phone earned less than $613 million since its release.

Considering that Microsoft rolled out Windows Phone in late 2010, that $613 million (if accurate) wouldn’t be reflective of a full year of sales. Nonetheless, that sort of revenue would be anemic, compared with those of Apple’s iPhone over a similar period or even the combined family of Google Android devices.

Microsoft announces embedded dev winners in global student competition

2011-08-01T16:07:00.000-07:00

Microsoft announces embedded dev winners in global student competition
Microsoft announced three winning teams in the Embedded Development part of its Imagine Cup 2011 student contest, which just concluded in New York. Their victorious Windows Embedded Compact 7 devices include: one that indicates safe fire escape routes in real time; another that turns the tedious task of blowing into a lung training device into a musical game; and a third that can find its way home robotically.

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Last month, we covered Microsoft's announcement of three winners in its embeddedSPARK 2011 challenge, which asked academics, hobbyists, or developers to come up with interesting Windows Embedded Compact 7 devices. (The $15,000 first-prize winner was a flying camera designed to locate disaster victims; the $5,000 second prize went to a touchscreen meal planner with a Windows Phone 7-style user interface; and the $1,000 third prize was awarded to a electronic bulletin board whose contents can be manipulated over the Internet.)

But as many readers will already be aware, Microsoft also has a massive competition for students in the form of the Imagine Cup, billed as "the world's premier student technology competition" and now in its ninth year." The 2011 Imagine Cup -- whose finals concluded July 13 in New York -- asked student teams to "imagine a world where technology helps solve the toughest problems."

As in past years, the 2011 Imagine Cup had multiple categories, any of which could be entered by teams consisting of three or four students and a faculty member. The categories included Software Design, Game Design, Digital Media, Windows Phone 7, Interoperability Challenge, Windows 7 Touch Challenge, IT Challenge, and the Orchard Challenge (the latter involving Orchard, an open-source CMS that's under development by Microsoft).

The category we're naturally been following, however, is the Embedded Development challenge. In the first round of this competition, which ended on Jan. 9, teams were asked to submit a "Project Vision Report" (five pages or fewer) that explains what problem they are trying to solve, what the proposed solution is, and why this would be best implemented as an embedded device. The report should briefly discuss proposed hardware and software architecture, Microsoft added.

Out of 350 initial teams, 150 were selected for the second round, and received DM&P's eBox-3310A-MSJK (pictured), a compact PC that includes a 1GHz MSTI PDX-600 (a version of DMP's Vortex86DX), 256MB or 512MB of DDR2 RAM, and a Type II/II CompactFlash slot. While being free to add additional hardware and software, teams had to use the eBox and a Windows Embedded Compact 7 operating system image that they themselves configured, built, debugged, and deployed.

The second round concluded on May 5, by which time teams had to submit information on the embedded device they built in the form of written documentation and a video not to exceed five minutes in length. Not long after, the 20 finalist teams -- listed on Microsoft's website -- were chosen to receive the free trip to the New York finals.

And the winners are

Starting on July 8, the teams each presented their devices in front of two separate judging panels, who whittled their numbers down to 12 and then just six, according to Microsoft. In the final round of judging, the first-, second-, and third-place teams were selected.

After six days of grueling competition, the $25,000 first prize went to Taiwan's Team NTHUCS, for "Right!! This way." This project uses a wireless sensor network to compute the safest fire escape routes in real time, according to Microsoft.

The second prize, worth $10,000, went to team Harmonicare from China. Their project -- visible in the CNN video embedded below -- aids those suffering from respiratory failure, turning the tedious task of blowing into a lung training device into a musical game.

Microsoft CEO Steve Ballmer appeared on CNN to promote the Imagine Cup
(click to play)

The third prize of $5,000 went to team Endeavour_Design from Romania.They created an intelligent robotic system designed to automaticallyavoid obstacles and find its way back to its control signal when itloses contact with a human operator, Microsoft says.

According to Microsoft, more than 400 students from 70 countries traveled to New York to compete at the Imagine Cup finals. The festivities included remarks from: philanthropist, activist and actor Eva Longoria; CEO of the Startup America Partnership Scott Case; and New York City Mayor Michael Bloomberg, the company adds.

S. Somasegar, senior vice president of Microsoft's developer division, stated, "The innovators, entrepreneurs and humanitarians who compete in the Imagine Cup have developed an inspiring spectrum of projects, raising the bar higher and higher each year. We are in awe of the students' solutions for addressing social and real-world challenges, and want to help them take their projects to the next level with the financial, technical and business support they need to change the world."

Further information

The tenth annual Imagine Cup will be held in Sydney, Australia, in July 2012. More information on the just-concluded event may be found on Microsoft's Imagine Cup 2011 website. Specifics about the Embedded Development competition may be found here, and details of all the finalists who went to New York may be found here.

SAP to link analytics tools to Google Maps, Earth

2011-07-27T16:28:00.000-07:00

IDG News Service - SAP is planning to connect its analytics software with Google's Maps and Earth software, allowing users to mine insights from plotting business data against locations around the world, the companies announced Wednesday.

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For example, a bank could figure out which regions have the most troubled housing markets by layering foreclosure data and the location of loan-holders on a map, SAP said.

SAP partners such as Centigon Solutions had already offered an integration with Google Maps, and Google has been offering a commercial version of its Maps APIs (application programming interfaces) for some time.

The advantage of the new tie-in is that SAP has inked a pact with Google for the use of 12 new APIs that give customers deep access to the mapping functions, including Street View, and allow them to build out customizations, said Jason Rose, senior director, business intelligence solution marketing. SAP's deal is good for three-and-a-half years, according to Rose.

Customers can expect the APIs to first surface with the "ramp-up" release of Business Objects 4.1, which is slated for late this year, Rose said. Ramp-up is SAP's term for the period when products are in controlled availability with a group of early adopters.

While Wednesday's announcement focused on analytics, customers can expect other SAP's products, such as its CRM (customer relationship management) software, to also tap the Google Maps APIs over time, according to Rose.

It's not clear whether the Google APIs will be made available to existing customers as part of their regular SAP maintenance payments, or sold separately. "Right now we're looking at the overall monetization strategy. We're still dotting the Is and crossing the Ts on that," Rose said.

Older versions of SAP's software, such as Business Objects XI 3.1, will be compatible with the APIs.

There's an obvious advantage to SAP customers going with SAP for Google Maps integration, versus a third party, said Forrester Research analyst Boris Evelson: "One versus two products to buy, install and maintain, plus one versus two vendors to blame when something doesn't work."

The Earth Builder APIs will also give SAP customers a potential alternative to traditional GIS (geographic information systems) from the likes of Pitney Bowes and ESRI, both of which already partner with SAP.

GIS platforms go beyond marking points on a map, adding concepts such as polygons, which denote a fixed geographic area, possibly with highly irregular boundaries. Therefore, a tour bus company could figure out how many diesel fueling stations are within 50 miles of a state park, for example. "[This] is what you really need for sophisticated logistics analysis," Evelson said.

Career Watch: The IT job outlook, from CompTIA

2011-07-22T06:29:00.000-07:00

Q&A: Todd Thibodeaux

The president and CEO of CompTIA discusses the IT job outlook.
Are things looking up for IT job seekers? Yes, but in a small way. Data from the Bureau of Labor Statistics indicates jobs were added in the category of "computer systems design and related services" in June, July and August. The change was very small, but it's trending in the right direction. Our own CompTIA IT Industry Business Confidence Index for September found that 37% of surveyed firms expect to add staff in the next six months, the same percentage as in the June 2010 index. Medium-size IT firms -- meaning companies with annual revenue of $20 million to $100 million -- have the most aggressive hiring plans, with 48% of those companies indicating they plan to expand staffing over the next six months. For large companies -- those with $100 million or more in annual revenue -- a slightly smaller number, 44%, said they plan staff expansions.

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What would you tell unemployed IT professionals who are finding that their skills are a poor match for the market? Any IT skill maintains its relevance, because workers are frequently dealing with legacy and embedded systems. But the key for anyone who desires a long-term career in IT is to keep your skills fresh and up to date. When the economy is good, companies have the resources to pay for continuing education and training for their workers. Unfortunately, that's often one of the areas cut first when budgets tighten. It's incumbent on the individual IT worker to take control of a lifelong learning plan so that their job skills stay current with what employers are looking for.

Careers
Employers want IT workers who can use technology for critical thinking. Demonstrate your ability to analyze a problem, solve it using available technology, and communicate your solution to others. While organizations may have slowed their spending on new IT projects, they're still pushing to squeeze more out of the systems they have in place. That requires the expertise of IT professionals who can identify ways to use technology to make the business operate more efficiently or less expensively.

Which sectors of the economy seem most promising for IT pros? Finance, education, government, entertainment, transportation, healthcare -- technology is deeply embedded in virtually every business and industry, and in businesses of all sizes, especially among the small businesses that account for the bulk of the nation's economy. A big opportunity for IT workers will occur in the health industry. Healthcare employers need workers with IT security skills, project management experience and networking qualifications. Employment opportunities exist with managed technology service providers that support medical facilities around the country. They're being called upon in large numbers to assist in the nationwide transition to electronic health records systems. This transition will also create a new category of hybrid jobs requiring a mix of healthcare knowledge and high-tech expertise. But it's important to look for opportunities that combine your technological savvy with something you're passionate about or at least somewhat interested in.
Tech Generations

We've been told that young people entering the workforce will expect to use the same technology they're accustomed to using in their personal lives: social media, text messaging, video chat. The funny thing about that conventional wisdom is that the youngest workers are the least likely to use any of those things. That's one of the findings of a study conducted for Citrix Online by Forrester Consulting.

On the job, members of Generation Y are less likely to use collaborative technology.
Gen Y Boomers age 55+
Share information via text message 26% 47%
Use social networking 40% 50%
Source: Forrester Consulting LLC online survey of 797 people who use computers in their jobs in the U.S., the U.K., France, Germany and Australia; September 2010

And it turns out texting and other forms of multitasking are overwhelmingly frowned upon during meetings. According to the survey, 83% of the respondents believe that side conversations are unacceptable during a meeting, and 77% disapprove of doing other work on a computer or smartphone.

CompTIA: IT business confidence up

2011-07-19T16:22:00.000-07:00

IDG News Service - Members of the U.S. IT sector are more confident now in their business prospects than they have been in the last year and a half, according to a new survey released by the Computing Technology Industry Association.

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The CompTIA IT Industry Business Confidence Index -- measuring IT managers' and workers' confidence in their own industry, their own companies and the U.S. economy -- stood at 60 in December, the trade group said. The index, based on a survey of more than 1,100 IT workers and managers, asks respondents to rate their confidence in those three areas on a 100-point scale.

CompTIA launched the index in June 2009, and December's confidence numbers in the U.S. were the highest in the history of the index.

Global IT spending should grow by 4% in 2011, CompTIA predicted.

The U.S. index was up seven points between September and December, while the global index was up eight points, to 64. The confidence index was highest in Brazil and India, at 75, while it was lowest in the U.S. and South Africa among eight countries indexed.

CompTIA predicted that the confidence index will rise again in the next quarter.

"After several quarters of lackluster performance, an improving CompTIA confidence index should be welcome news to companies eager for economic stability," Tim Herbert, vice president of research for CompTIA, said in a statement.

U.S. IT workers and managers -- 41% of respondents were senior to executive management -- expressed most confidence in the IT industry and in their own companies. Confidence in the U.S. economy remained below 50 on the 100-point scale.

Forty-five percent of U.S. IT firms are planning to increase spending on new products and business lines over the next half year, and 43% plan technology-related investments, an increase of 10 percentage points from September, CompTIA said. Thirty-two percent of U.S. IT companies said they planned to increase hiring over the next six months, compared to 37% in September, the survey said.

Employment trends are "still cause for concern," Herbert said.

Worldwide, 52% of IT firms plan to increase spending on new product lines, and 51% plan to increase spending on technology. "With renewed market stability and optimism, businesses will likely start spending a bit more freely," the study said.

A number of factors could "potentially derail or minimize growth," the study said. IT executives remain concerned about weak consumer spending, government regulation and unexpected economic shocks such as increased oil prices, the study said.

Pent-up demand for IT products and services, along with strong sales in emerging markets and industries such as health care, will help the IT industry grow this year, CompTIA predicted. However, consumers could seek low-cost options for their IT products, resulting in high growth in unit sales, but modest revenue growth, the trade group said.

10 Secrets for Searching for a Job During a Recession

2011-07-16T02:10:00.000-07:00

Focusing your efforts on jobs in growing industries and demonstrating how your work has generated revenue are just two simple ways to distinguish yourself from the rest of the job seekers competing for positions in a down economy.

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8. Try to be perfect.

With so many job seekers available, recruiters are being told to keep looking until they find an exact match. Candidates who are landing positions in today's economy are—by strategy or by luck—perceived to be "ideal" candidates. Such ideal candidates are confident and they're genuinely passionate about the job, company and industry. Hiring managers consider confidence and passion top qualities.

To make sure you're playing your A-game on interview day, spend time beforehand scripting and rehearsing your answers to interview questions about your strengths and weaknesses, says Chris McCann of Gregory Laka and Company executive search.

McCann also recommends being prepared to explain how you developed staff beyond providing company paid training. For example, did you serve as a mentor? "Noting how some of those individuals have succeeded demonstrates your personal connection and commitment to your team," he says.

Finally, make sure you know the intimate details of your resume and all of your accomplishments, adds McCann. You need to be ready to elaborate in great detail on processes, facts, time lines, technologies, costs and all manner of statistics on all firms and projects directly related to the position for which you are interviewing.
9. Be prepared to be flexible. VERY flexible.

The job market is not the same across the country. Some states are creating more new jobs than others. You may need to move. If international work appeals and is open to you, consider work outside the U.S.

In addition to being open to relocating, you may have to bend over backwards to get a job or impress an employer. An executive recruiter I interviewed for this story told me about a candidate who moved from third or fourth choice to top selection when he offered to work as a consultant to start, at half the rate for six months in a contract-for-hire option. By lowering his rate and starting out on contract, this candidate showed his willingness to mitigate the risk his prospective employer would be taking on by hiring him full-time. Notably, the candidate didn't go to this length because he was desperate for any job. He made some upfront sacrifices because he really wanted this particular job with this particular employer, the recruiter told me.

Another candidate offered to fly cross-country on his own funds to meet with a CEO who was on vacation at the time. By being extremely flexible for the CEO, the candidate met him in a much more informal and relaxed environment. This expensive and risky strategy worked for the candidate—who, again, was not desperate for any job. He got what he felt was the perfect job for him.
10. Plan for the long term.

Don't stop your search until at least 30 days after your first day on your new job. I know colleagues who've had job offers rescinded or who've been laid off—not for performance reasons but for the company's financial reasons—within their first 90 days who then have had to start their job searches all over again. (I've experienced this, too.) Consequently, some job search experts recommend that new hires keep interviewing for other jobs during their first 90 days at their new employer since that's a standard trial period for new hires during which employers can let them go for any reason.

If you focus your efforts on companies in growth industries where your skills are suited, and if you emphasize your ability to have an immediate impact on prospective employers' bottom lines, you'll be poised for success no matter how bad the economy. As Gregory Laka and Company's McCann notes, "There are not a lot of people who can leave their thumbprint on a business. Those individuals are the top 10 percent of the talent pool. They are the people that businesses will always look to hire no matter what the market or economy."

Why the time is now for continuous integration in app development

2011-07-07T14:48:00.000-07:00

The system of automatic software builds and tests can help developers make better apps with less effort

Continuous integration, in which software builds are automated and tested as code flows in, is becoming more prominent lately thanks to several trends: economics, agile software development, open source options, and distributed, complex projects.

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With continuous integration, software is put together quicker and tests are done faster, says developer Kohsuke Kawaguchi, who started the open source Hudson project in 2004 and moved on to the Jenkins fork last year after a dispute with Oracle. Code is constantly being integrated and tested, and farms of computers can become involved. "It becomes easier for developers to produce high-quality software," Kawaguchi says. The second benefit, he adds, is it "makes the project more transparent and more visible." This is beneficial for managers and testers who do not have the level of insight into the code as developers, he says.

[ After the spinout of Hudson and OpenOffice, does open source stand a chance at Oracle? InfoWorld's Paul Krill investigates. | Get the latest insights and news on application development with the Developer World newsletter. ]

Continuous integration systems trigger build systems like Apache Maven to start creating software. "It monitors your version control system, waiting for anybody to check in new code. As soon as it sees that a check-in has occurred, it grabs everything and builds it and tests it and then sends out via email or various other notification mechanisms the details of whether it worked or not," says Paul Julius, a co-founder of the CruiseControl open source continuous integration system that automates the process and offers rapid feedback, he says. Julius estimates that CruiseControl has millions of users.

Economics drive continuous integration
While the concept of continuous integration has been around for several years (CruiseControl debuted in 2001), officials and experts in the software industry see continuous integration becoming a more vital component in software development shops in the current business environment. Kawaguchi cites economics as a key driver. The price of computing is getting cheaper and cheaper, but the price of people remains more or less constant, he says.

Continuous integration, like IDEs before it, thus tries to shift the effort from developers to software, to reduce overall costs. "When I think of [continuous integration] servers, the main role that it achieves is to effectively harness the computing power in the lab or in the data center to make developers productive without making them do more work," Kawaguchi says.

The recent adoption of agile software development, in which software is developed in short iterations rather than mapped out months in advance, is a perfect fit for continuous integration, says Mike Milinkovich, executive director of the Eclipse Foundation, the new proprietor of Hudson. Continuous integration and the ability to share work across different development teams in agile projects "is an absolute must," says Milinkovich. "Agile implies you are doing things rapidly, and a big part of this is constantly pulling in the work of developers."

"People are finding the value of more agile practices and the value of integrating on regular basis, bringing the changes together," says John Wiegand, a distinguished engineer and chief architect at IBM Rational.

Intel touts progress toward 50Gbps optical link

2011-06-21T15:48:00.000-07:00

Intel has reportedly shown working prototypes of silicon for a photonics link that moves data at 50Gbps. Capable of transmitting the equivalent of an entire HD movie every second, the technology will be ready to be integrated into PCs, embedded devices, and consumer electronics by 2015, according to the chipmaker.

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At a company event this week, Intel demonstrated what it said were working prototypes of the chips that will be used to transmit and receive data optically, according to IDG News Service writer Agam Shah. Non-working mockups of the cables that will be used to carry the data were also displayed, the story adds.

Intel first announced its 50Gbps phototonics link last year in conjunction with the Integrated Photonics Research Conference held in Monterey, Calif. Justin Rattner, Intel chief technology officer and director of Intel Labs, said at the time that "the silicon photonics link ... marks a significant achievement in our long term vision of siliconizing' photonics and bringing high bandwidth, low cost optical communications in and around future PCs, servers, and consumer devices."

Intel's silicon photonics transmitter and receiver
Intel previously claimed the silicon photonics interconnect (above) would work over distances of up to 50 meters (about 160 feet). But IDG'sShah now quotes Jeff Demain, Intel's strategy director of circuits andsystem research at Intel Labs, as saying the 50Gbps links will work upto 100 meters.

Demain is to have added that the silicon photonics technology --expected to be ready for commercial use by 2015 -- will coexist with itsearlier Light Peak interconnect. The latter currently runs at 10Gb/sec. over copper and isslated for an optical upgrade next year.

As we review later in this story, Intel now refers to Light Peak as Thunderbolt. The technology was brought to market in February on three Apple MacBook Pro notebook computers.

"We see (silicon photonics and Thunderbolt) as complementary. It's theevolution of these connectors and protocols as they move forward,"Demain was quoted as saying. Thunderbolt is more than a cable. It's arouter chip that aggregates DisplayPort and PCI-Express."

According to Intel, its silicon photonics technology stems from a 2006 breakthrough, whereby the light-emitting properties of Indium Phosphide were combined for the first time with the light-routing capabilities of silicon in a single hybrid chip. The prototypes are said to include four silicon lasers, whose light beams each travel into an optical modulator that encodes data onto them at 12.5Gbps. The four beams are then combined and sent to a single optical fiber for a total data rate of 50Gbps, the chipmaker says.

At the other end of the fiber, a receiver chip separates the four optical beams and directs them into photo detectors, converting their data back into electrical signals. The transmitter and receiver are "assembled using low-cost manufacturing techniques familiar to the semiconductor industry," according to Intel.

More about Thunderbolt
Thunderbolt reached the market on three MacBook Pro laptops from Apple: a 13-inch model that starts at $1,199; a 15-inch model starting at $1,799, and a 17-inch model that costs $2,499. Still an Apple exclusive at this point, it can be recognized on all three portables by a DisplayPort-style interface decorated with a Thunderbolt icon (below).

Thunderbolt uses a DisplayPort-style connector

According to Intel, the key to Thunderbolt's abilities is a controller chip (below left) that allows both DisplayPort and PCI Express protocols to be carried over a single cable (below right). This controller offers "low latency with highly accurate time synchronization," and provides for bus-powered devices (up to 10 Watts), the company adds.

Intel's Thunderbolt controllers (left) are intended for PCs and up to six peripherals (right)
(Click either to enlarge)

Apple's MacBook Pro product page touts Thunderbolt as offering "two 10Gb/sec. data channels," while Intel says it features "dual-channel 10Gbps per port." This means "a full 10 Gb./sec of bandwidth can be provided for the first device, as well as additional downstream devices," the chipmaker adds.

A Promise storage device connected to Apple's new MacBook Pro via Thunderbolt
(Click to enlarge)

We interpret these claims as meaning that while Thunderbolt never offers more than 10Gb/sec. of bandwidth, it does not slow down when multiple devices are connected. According to Intel, Thunderbolt allows up to seven devices (a PC and six peripherals) to be connected to a single cable with almost no latency. The distance between each of the devices may be up to three meters (9.8 feet), the company adds.

Thunderbolt-ready peripherals such as LaCie's Little Big Disk include dual ports so they can be part of a daisy chain. Apart from Apple, vendors that have signed on include Aja, Apogee, Avid, Blackmagic, Promise, and Universal Audio, Intel said in February.

Thunderbolt requires no termination, unlike SCSI, but Intel says any DisplayPort device needs to be the last one in a chain (so, apparently, the interconnect will not support multiple monitors). Given that it relays both DisplayPort and PCI Express signals, Thunderbolt will make it "simple to create gigabit Ethernet, FireWire, or eSATA adapters using existing PCI Express device drivers," the chipmaker adds.

Intel's 50Gbps silicon photonics link
Further information
More information on Intel's silicon photonics research may be found on the company's website, here. A related presentation, white paper, and backgrounder, all in PDF format, may be found here, here, and here, respectively.

My Fav Free Forensic Analysis Tools

2011-06-07T03:28:00.000-07:00

I was talking about colleges with my son the other day to see what he is interested in for a possible major. I was hoping and praying he wouldn't say English since my guidance there would be like trying to divide by zero or philosophy because that meant he'd be living here until his late 30's. He told me he was interested in being a detective. Well! I must say my ears perked right up! I have always thought the two best careers in IT are forensics and data center. But no...he wants to be a actual detective...like you know the ones that carry a badge and stuff. I'm not sure were that even came from to be honest. He doesn't watch detective shows or read detective novels. Heck the closest I was to ever being a detective was looking for my pants and wondering why I was wearing moose antler horns and a eye patch after a blackout. Well I guess it could been worse. He could have wanted to go to Auburn...

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But that got me thinking about forensics itself and some of the tools I use. I believe that if someone is just getting into IT and they want a solid career path, it's hard to beat forensic science or data center engineering. Understand to be good in forensics you really need to understand HOW data actually works and moves though a system. Forensics is a top level discipline that you work towards after you master PCs, servers, networking (especially networking) and coding. Sounds tough but man alive is it a lot of fun. I would not say I am a forensics expert. Not even close. I am more of a hobbyist in this area. Now some of the tools out there in forensics are VERY expensive due to their incredible speed and "court room" validation.

However, if you just wanting to mess around and practice on a few machines to see if this is a career path for you, here are a few of the freebie tools I use and have had a ton of success with.

Are your pants on fire yet? Web Browsers analysis
This most common use I see for forensic hobbyist is getting to a history file when the history has been erased. This is a browser specific function so the tools must use the browser API's to accomplish this. Here are a few of my favs:
- From across the pond the folks at Forensics-software http://forensic-software.co.uk have two most excellent tools. Fox Analysis and Chrome Analysis
- If it's IE your looking for then its really hard to beat Nirsoft http://www.nirsoft.net/ I absolutely love their IECookieViewer They have a bunch of other tools as well for you to mess around with but their IE stuff is really second to none. Honorable mention to their Skype Log View as well. Very cool tool!

Email Fun
Email is more difficult to find a freeware tool on the forensics side of the house. Email is really a database with a bunch of insane tables and procedures that can lead you down a path more dangerous then walking around Olongopo drunk with money falling out of your pockets. And before you ask No wasn't me on the don't do this poster... Email Detective is a proggy we used back in the AOL/Compuserv days to rebuild email. About the only game on the freeware side of the track is from MiTec http://www.mitec.cz/mailview.html out of the Czech Republic called Mail Viewer It's lightweight and works good on Outlook Express, T-Bird and Windows Live email. See the commonality here? All of the email is cached or stored local and not on a server. For Outlook and other server based DB style systems, I just have not found a good freeware email tool I really like too much.

Lookin' for a file in a haystack
There are so many attributes to look at with files. The good news here is there is no shortage of really good freebie tools that allow you dissect a file with the precision of a kid removing the vegetables out of Kung Pow Chicken. For stuff like reconstructing images to see if folks have been taking pictures of you eating a salad at a steakhouse (I was watching for my wife!) it's hard to beat Forensic Image Viewer from Sanderson Forensics http://www.sandersonforensics.com also check out MFTview while your there. He requires you to register to download, but it is totally worth it!
- A tool I really love to mess around with is Memoryze from Mandiant http://www.mandiant.com/products/free_software/memoryze/ This digital bundle of awesomeness allows you to analyze live memory and even page files on a running system. It works great even on memory images. Oh man this tools digital foot must be hurtin' from the ass it kicks!

But, isn't there a ISO we can use like BackTrack instead of messin' round and piece mailing all of these tools?
ISO are really awesome. Just like there are many different fishing lures to catch Bass, there's also multiple ISO for different forensics needs. Of course you can just use the forensics mode on BT and it works good also. Here are a couple others I keep close at hand.
- Caine Live CD http://www.caine-live.net/ is one of my favs. Full featured with a ton of useful scripts built right in, this is a great general propose ISO with great support and really does Italy proud!
- Deft Linuxhttp://www.deftlinux.net/ another great ISO from Italy this is also another full featured ISO. It is very well documented and man alive is it fast! When I need speed, I turn to Deft!
- Plain Sight http://www.plainsight.info/ is a great ISO to get started on messing around with forensics and it has a lot horsepower too! The volatile memory examination tools are really the stuff!

Websites baby!
Some of my RSS locked forensics favs are:
- http://www.forensicfocus.com/ hardcore folks, news and training here!
- http://www.forensicswiki.org/wiki/Tools Nice up to date tool wiki
- http://www.ciscoworkshops.com Great free geek workshops that cover all things computer geeks dig!

Forensics is a huge field and I believe folks can really make there mark here. It really overlays nearly every single piece of IT out there today and oh man are these folks in demand. Plus it a fun hobby to get into just to really improve your troubleshooting skills. Well, time for me to head off to a customer call. I just glad he likes to talk networking on a Bass boat....

Jimmy Ray Purser

Trivia File Transfer Protocol
Soon after the site was established MGM/UA set up a website for Hackers it was hacked! A group calling itself the Internet Liberation Front managed to draw all over the photo of Hackers stars Angelina Jolie and Jonny Lee Miller, and replaced verbiage, 'this is going to be an entertaining, fun promotional site for a movie,' with 'this is going to be a lame, cheesy promotional site for a movie!' The studio decided to maintain the site during the theatrical run of the movie in its altered form. At least their not Sony....

Apple MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt)

2011-06-06T07:11:00.000-07:00

As fate would have it, an Intel chipset glitch delayed shipments of almost every laptop manufacturer, save one. Apple, which has typically been last in transitioning to new technology, is now among the first to launch laptops with Sandy Bridge (known officially as second-generation Core CPUs)—and arriving first has its privileges. The Apple MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) ($2,199 direct) is the fastest laptop on our bench, thanks to a component overhaul that involves the first ever quad-core processor on a Mac laptop and a rekindled romance with AMD graphics. And then there's Thunderbolt, a new connection technology that has mounds of potential, but I'll contain my excitement until compatible peripherals ship. This, and a new Facetime HD Webcam, places the MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) at the peak of technology's Mount Olympus and earns it an Editor's Choice in the desktop replacement laptop category.

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Thunderbolt Icon Is the only Design Change
Design-wise, don't expect a thinner or lighter laptop. The only change to the design is the addition of a Thunderbolt icon next to mini-Displayport. The MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) keeps its wondrous shape and form, since all of the changes are from within. At the moment, I don't see a need to alter its exterior. It's still the thinnest, most streamlined laptop in its class, made so by carving the center out of a thin slab of aluminum. It's at least a quarter of an inch thinner and about a pound lighter, at 5.5 pounds, than the Dell XPS 15 ($1,115 direct, 4.5 stars) (6.3 lbs) and Asus N53JF-XE1 ($1,015 street, 4 stars) (6.3 lbs).
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Apple MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) : Top
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Apple MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) : Front

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The MacBook Pro15-inch (Thunderbolt) has several screen options, all of which require that you pay a significant premium, although I can't think of many consumer laptops that have an anti-glare screen (a $150 option). There are laptops that can scale to higher resolutions, though. The XPS 15 and the N53JF-XE1 either ship or have an option for a 1080p display (1,920-by-1,080); the Macbook Pro 15-inch is available with a 1,440-by-900 or 1,680-by-1,050 display ($100). Still, having screen options is a luxury that few others are willing to offer. The HP Pavilion dv7-4283cl, for instance, is only available with a glossy screen and 1,600-by-900 resolution.

The chiclet-style keyboard carries on the Macbook Pro tradition of black keys that matches the black of the screen's bezel. Backlights, which are found between the keys and aluminum foundation, are absolutely invaluable in low-lit situations. You can also find a backlit keyboard in the XPS 15. The signature Apple clickpad dwarfs all others in terms of size and responsiveness. No other touchpad can recognize two- to four-finger gestures as accurately and fluidly as Apple's, and the reason for this is two-fold: First, it's made of glass, which doesn't wear out over time. Others use acrylic or some lesser material in their touchpad construction. Second, the coding drivers and software for the touchpad are created in-house (instead of through some third-party developer) so that each click, swipe, or pinch works to perfection.
Specifications

Type Gaming, Media, Business, Small Business, Desktop Replacement
Processor Name Intel Core i7-2720QM
Operating System Mac OS X 10.6
Processor Speed 2.2 GHz
RAM 4 GB
Weight 5.5 lb
Screen Size 15.6 inches
Screen Size Type widescreen
Graphics Card AMD Radeon HD 6750M
2nd Graphics Card Intel HD Graphics 3000
Storage Capacity (as Tested) 750 GB
Networking Options 802.11n
Primary Optical Drive DVD+R DL

What is Thunderbolt?
The last time Apple led the way with a new connection technology was when it initiated the FireWire standard. Thunderbolt, an I/O technology from Intel (codenamed Light Peak), operates under a similar principle in that it boosts transfer rates to unprecedented levels. The technology lives inside the mini-Displayport, so structurally the port looks exactly like the one in the previous MacBook Pro iterations. But when it's connected to a Thunderbolt-equipped peripheral, transfer rates can hit a theoretical 10Gbps. That's roughly 21 times the speed of USB 2.0 and FireWire 400, 12 times that of Firewire 800, and twice that of USB 3.0.

The Thunderbolt port, as Apple explains it, is essentially taking PCI Express—the channel that every port and slot goes through—out of the box. It's like finding the shortcut that gets you directly onto the five-lane highway. Originally, Intel designed Thunderbolt to work over an optical cable, but because it has yet to figure out how to power external peripherals through this method, copper is used instead. You'll need a new cable that runs from the Thunderbolt/mini-Displayport to the external device. Yes, it can still output to an external display—or connect to any device for that matter. As proof, Apple demonstrated a RAID server (made by Promise Technologies) attached to the laptop, which was then attached to an Apple Cinema Display, in a daisy chain configuration. Thunderbolt is bi-directional, meaning it can have two streams going at the same time—up to 10Gbps for each stream. In practice, for instance, you can simultaneously stream four uncompressed 1080p video clips from the RAID server to the laptop (first stream) and then display out to the Cinema Display at the same time (second stream) without lag or distortion. You can barely stream one uncompressed 1080p clip through FireWire, let alone four. During Apple's demonstration, transfer speeds were peaking at 5Gbps—the realistic speed of Thunderbolt, judging by the throughput meter Apple had in place.

You can also think of Thunderbolt as a universal port. If a company were to create a Thunderbolt hub or adapter, it can work with all sorts of connection technologies, including FireWire, USB 2.0, USB 3.0, eSATA, and Gigabit Ethernet. Remember, all of these technologies go through PCI Express at some point. Before you get too excited, though, Thunderbolt peripherals won't ship for months (the ones that were on display were prototypes), and Apple is rumored to have an exclusive on this technology until 2012. So doubts about its adoption rate is completely understandable. Update: Intel pointed out that there is no exclusivity on Thunderbolt, OEMs are free to implement it when they think the time is right.)

Facetime HD and Usual Suspects of Features
With the new HD Webcam sensor, video feeds no longer look grainy or grotesquely stretched when filling the entire screen. The streams are broadcast at a resolution of 1,280-by-720 (720p), which is about 3 times the resolution of the Webcam in previous MacBook Pro models. Video chatting with the Facetime app, over a Wi-Fi connection, was free of distortions. The MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) isn't the only laptop with an HD Webcam, though. You can find one in the Dell XPS 15, which has a Skype-certified HD Webcam. Lenovo, Sony, and HP have also rolled out laptops with 720p-capable HD Webcams.

Every other port and slot remains untouched from the previous iteration. It has two USB ports, FireWire 800, a Gigabit Ethernet port, and SDXC media card slot. The dual-layer DVD burner will seem generic compared with the Blu-Ray drives found in the Dell XPS 15 and HP Pavilion dv7-4283cl ($999.99 list, 4 stars). And don't expect to see a Blu-ray drive in a Mac laptop anytime soon, as this is a road Apple so far refuses to take. This configuration ships with a 750GB hard drive that spins at 5400rpm; the Dell XPS 15 and HP dv7-4283cl come with faster 7200rpm drives. The MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) offers SSD drives as well, in 128GB ($100), 256GB ($500), and 512GB ($1,100) capacities.

Massive Component Overhaul
Apple MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) With Intel's second-generation Core architecture, this isn't a mere brain transplant where you swap out one processor for another—it's a multi-organ makeover. For the first time in MacBook Pro history, the MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) is equipped with a quad-core processor—a 2.2GHz, Intel Core i7-2720QM (past models had dual-core processors). The two extra cores play a vital role in multithreaded tasks, such as those found in professional video and photo editing packages (think Final Cut Pro and Adobe Products). A revamped architecture also means faster memory speeds (up to 1333MHz), although capacities are still 4GB to start, 8GB ($200) maximum.

On our PCMark Vantage test—a gauge of overall performance—the MacBook Pro 15-inch scored 8,315 (under Windows 7 Home Premium via Bootcamp), outpacing the Asus N53SV-A1 (7,257), which has a second-generation 2GHz Intel Core i7 2630QM CPU and 4GB of memory (stay tuned for our review).. The MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) finished Handbrake, a single-threaded video transcoding test, in 1 minute 53 seconds, well ahead of the Asus N53SV-A1 (2:06). It crushed the previous Apple MacBook Pro 15-inch (Core i5), particularly in Cinebench 11.5 (5.07) and Handbrake (1:53) tests where the gains were doubled. It wouldn't even be fair to compare the MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) to the Dell XPS 15, Asus N53JF-XE1, and HP dv7-4283cl, since the other three are running previous-generation Intel parts. Suffice it to say, it was a massacre, but I suppose being first with new technologies on our labs bench has its advantages.

One of the more unexpected changes lies in the graphics. Apple has long been an Nvidia proponent on the laptop side, although it has used ATI (now AMD) graphics chips in the past. But the company believes that the AMD Radeon 6750M is a better 3D chip, and the performance numbers bear that out. This is the first time a MacBook Pro has broken the 10,000 point mark in 3DMark06 (it scored 10,878), edging the Asus N53SV-A1 (10,073) and its Nvidia GeForce GT 540M GPU. The MacBook Pro15-inch (Thunderbolt) blew past the Dell XPS 15 (8,174) and HP dv7-4283cl (4,723) in the same test, although the Dell XPS 15 is being updated with a new Nvidia chip as we speak. At high-quality settings, popular game titles like Crysis (18.8 frames per second) and Lost Planet 2 (30.8 fps) were absolutely playable, as I found out by running them in Windows 7, via Bootcamp.

Apple also found a way to link its Automatic Graphics Switching (AGS) technology with the AMD graphics chip, whereas Windows-based laptops are still performing the switch manually through software. The switch, like the previous iteration, is done automatically by recognizing which apps or tasks require a heavy-duty graphics chip. So plugging in an external display, running 3D games, or transcoding an HD video defaults to the AMD Radeon 6750M, while basic tasks (e-mail, Web browsing, etc) defaults to the integrated Intel HD 3000 graphics. Apple will also let you to force the laptop to run on the AMD graphics, done through system preferences.

Although the size of the battery didn't change and the internals aren't any more energy efficient than the previous platform, the MacBook 15-inch (Thunderbolt) improved its battery score on MobileMark 2007 (run in Windows via Bootcamp) to 4 hours 40 minutes (from 3 hours, 21 minutes in the previous version). It goes without saying that power management and battery optimizations are better tuned in the Mac OS 10 environment than in Windows7, which is why I also looped a MP4 movie file in OS 10 until the battery died. The 15-inch lasted 6 hours 43 minutes in this test. Whether it's in Windows 7 or Mac OS 10, it outlasted the Dell XPS 15 (3:48 on MobileMark 2007) and Asus N53JF-XE1 (3:15).

Final Thoughts
Now, I realize that it's still early in the game, as scores of laptops will eventually arrive on my bench with Intel's second-generation chips and with graphics chips as powerful as the ones found in Apple's new laptops. As it stands, however, the Apple MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) is the fastest and fastest shipping laptop to date (you can stroll into Apple store and buy one as we speak), and it's all thanks to an Intel chipset glitch that prevented every other manufacturer from shipping their new laptops on time. Apple has assured me that this glitch will not affect any of the MacBook Pros, since they're all using new and unaffected chipsets from Intel.

As for the new Intel architecture, this happens once every year, if not longer, and Apple made the most of it. The speeds clocked from our full range of performance tests were mind-blowingly fast, as were the graphics frame rates that came from a renewed partnership with AMD. Although Thunderbolt is still very early in its third-party support stages, it's a hot new technology that Apple wrestled away from everyone else. Add the Facetime HD Webcam and the Apple MacBook Pro 15-inch (Thunderbolt) is a technological tour de force.

The Truth About CompTIA Network Boot Camps

2011-06-01T08:09:00.000-07:00

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Founding engineer of Cisco TelePresence jumps to rival

2011-05-04T15:34:00.000-07:00

Another notable Cisco official is leaving the company. Phil Graham, engineering founder of Cisco's TelePresence initiative has joined Avaya to lead its R&D for "next-generation endpoints that improve the user experience and promote effective business collaboration," according to an e-mail from Avaya PR.

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Graham came to Cisco via the 1998 acquisition of Judy Estrin's streaming video pioneer Precept Software. While at Cisco, Graham drove development of all the TelePresence endpoint, multipoint, recording, and scheduling products and oversaw adjacent TelePresence business units. Estrin became Cisco's second CTO.

Graham also led a team in the company's Technology Center, a group developing video and home networking technologies. Graham served as director of engineering for Cisco's Video Internet Services Unit, which was responsible for enterprise video streaming products like Cisco IP/TV, a direct result of the Precept acquisition.

Graham joins a list of other high-profile Cisco executives to leave the company as it winnows its focus and transitions itself back into a router and switch company. Video, ironically, is a market Cisco intends to drive and lead in, and one of the five key areas of focus for the company as it realigns operations.

Oracle drops support for Intel's much-maligned Itanium chip

2011-05-03T15:45:00.000-07:00

Oracle further muddied the future of Intel's Itanium platform, saying late Tuesday that it had decided to discontinue all development for the server chip. It is only the latest to do so, behind Microsoft last year, and Red Hat in 2009.

"Intel management made it clear that their strategic focus is on their x86 microprocessor and that Itanium was nearing the end of its life," the company said in a statement. Intel disagreed with Oracle's claim however, saying it remained "committed" to the platform.

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"Intel's work on Intel Itanium processors and platforms continues unabated with multiple generations of chips currently in development and on schedule," the chipmaker's president and CEO Paul Otellini said in a statement.

Intel's relationship with Itanium has been a rocky one since its 2001 debut. Its architecture was made incompatible with the x86 line of processors from the start, meaning applications had to be written specifically for it. It also typically performed at much slower speeds to its competitors.

The chip never seemed to have good sales, and was upstaged by AMD's own 64-bit processors which were x86-compatible. This forced Intel to produce 64-bit server chips that were x86-compatible as well, effectively marooning Itanium and further damaging the platform.

Oracle's comments also seemed to upset HP, which is the largest producer of servers based on Itanium. The chip was the result of a collaboration between HP and Intel during the 1990s, although Intel now is responsible for its development.

With its acquisition of Sun, Oracle also became a competitor to Itanium with its plans to continue development of the SPARC chip. HP seemingly believes this is somewhat anti-competitive -- akin to Sun attempting to push customers to its own product by ending support of a competitor's.

"We are shocked that Oracle would put enterprises and governments at risk while costing them hundreds of millions of dollars in lost productivity in a shameless gambit to limit fair competition," HP executive vice president Dave Donatelli told Businesweek.

10 Strategies Microsoft Should Follow in 2010

2011-04-27T13:45:00.000-07:00

Table of Contents:

1. 10 Strategies Microsoft Should Follow in 2010
2. Microsoft Needs to Keep True to the Enterprise

News Analysis: Microsoft had a relatively successful year. But 2009 is nearly history and Microsoft must look ahead to 2010. Google and Apple will remain its biggest competitive challenges. However, Microsoft would be wise to avoid unhealthy obsessions about the competition. Here is a look at 10 strategies Microsoft should follow in the new year.

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10 Strategies Microsoft Should Follow in 2010

Now that 2009 is coming to a close, it's time for Microsoft to look ahead to 2010. The software giant will be met with several challenges during the year. It will need to face off against Google, an increasingly disconcerting competitor that seems to have its sights set on Redmond.

It also needs to take on Apple, which has enjoyed unfettered growth in the mobile space. It gets even worse when one considers that Microsoft also needs to worry about regulators that have major problems with the strategies Microsoft follows. Needless to say, it will be a tough year for Microsoft.

That's why Microsoft needs to be smart about the moves it makes. It can't simply expect to maintain status quo by offering services and solutions that don't appeal to user desire. It also can't expect to run roughshod over the market without the European Union having a few things to say about it. So as Microsoft prepares for the challenges that it will face in 2010, it's important that it has the right strategies in place to ensure it will be successful.

We have 10 strategies Microsoft should follow in 2010.

Let's take a look.

1. Drastically improve Windows Mobile

It's not enough for Microsoft to simply address the problems users have with Windows Mobile. The company needs to drastically improve its mobile OS if it even wants to stay relevant in the space. Right now, Windows Mobile is little more than an "also-ran." It lacks multitouch support, it has none of the features users are looking for in next-gen offerings today, and the number of apps available to the platform pale in comparison to anything Apple offers. Windows Mobile is in desperate need of improvement.

2. Leverage Bing

If Microsoft wants to be successful online, it needs to do a better job of leveraging Bing. In 2010, the company must integrate Bing into just about everything it does. Bing Search should be in Windows Mobile. It should become a key component in Windows 7. It should especially find its way into Microsoft's many online services. Bing is the centerpiece of Microsoft's online strategy. It must be leveraged.

3. Adhere to the EU's demands

The European Union has a major problem with Microsoft. It believes that the company is engaging in practices that the governing body finds unacceptable. When Microsoft made the deal to offer users the opportunity to download up to 12 different browsers, it was the smart play for the software giant. It can't spend 2010 trying to find ways around that agreement. Microsoft needs to do what the EU wants and move on with other strategies.

4. Get to work on Azure

It's unbelievable that Microsoft would allow Google to be the first company to move into the online-operating-system space. As a software firm, most expected Microsoft to lead the way to the Web. It hasn't. That needs to change in 2010. The company needs to work hard on Azure and get it to market as quickly as possible. It can't allow Google to steal the online-OS spotlight. Microsoft could easily find itself trying to catch up to Google, rather than leading it.

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2011-02-12T11:37:00.000-08:00

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The Mac App Store makes multi-Mac ownership cheaper than multi-PC ownership | COMPTIA VIDEOS! Comptia A+ Videos Training, Comptia video training at comptiavideo.com

2011-01-08T13:34:00.000-08:00

Apple has struck a blow again Microsoft by making multi-Mac ownership cheaper than multi-PC ownership.

Note: Putting aside that whole piracy problem plaguing the Mac App Store …

How has Apple pulled off this trick? Through this simple entry in the Mac App Store FAQ:

Q: Can I use apps from the Mac App Store on more than one computer?

A: Apps from the Mac App Store may be used on any Macs that you own or control for your personal use.

People seem to have forgotten that Microsoft had an app store of sorts built into Windows Vista called Windows Marketplace. It died.

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Check out the use of the word “any” in that sentence. Apple is placing no restriction (other than the personal use clause, which I’m seeking clarification on from Apple ) on the number of Macs that you can install purchased apps on.

No more having to buy software twice. Once you’ve bought it, you can install it on all your systems. Sure, the freedoms are nowhere near as broad as those offered by open source software, but as far as commercial software goes, these restrictions are about as loose as you’ll find. And these aren’t just junk ‘fart’ apps and so on. For Mac users there’s some quality stuff to be found in the Mac App Store at a decent price. Sure, not everything, everyone will ever need is there, but if that was a criteria for success, nothing would ever succeed.

Not only that, but the end to serial numbers, activation codes and the like:

Q: Do apps from the Mac App Store require activation keys, serial numbers, or registration numbers?

A: No, but you may be asked for your Apple ID and password the first time you use an app.

I don’t know about you, but to me that sounds like a serious simplification for Mac-owning consumers. Not only for those owning multiple Mac systems, but also for those upgrading to newer systems.

About the only potential gotchya I can see is this:

Q: If I have already downloaded an app from the Mac App Store, can I redownload it for free?

A: Yes. You can redownload apps from the Mac App Store as long as the app remains available. You may be asked to enter the Apple ID and password you initially used to download the app.

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So if an app or developer vanishes from the App Store, you’re out of luck unless you’ve got a backup (in which case, you’ve still got access to the app in question).

It’s clear that when it came to the Mac App Store that Apple really did choose to ‘think different’ when it came to licensing. People seem to have forgotten that Microsoft had an app store of sorts built into Windows Vista called Windows Marketplace. It died. Why? Partly because Microsoft couldn’t see it as any more than a new way to distribute old thinking.

Whether you’re a fan of Apple or not, the company deserves some praise for making software ownership for consumers less of a hassle.

CES wrap: Nvidia, Motorola Mobility get top marks | COMPTIA VIDEOS! Comptia A+ Videos Training, Comptia video training at comptiavideo.com

2011-01-08T13:22:00.000-08:00

The Consumer Electronics Show is about to wind down—mercifully—and it’s time to hand out grades for the major tech players. Motorola Mobility and Nvidia move to the front of the class.

This wrap focuses on the strategic positioning of the players at CES this week. Why? Let’s face it: Many of the products highlighted this week are either six months away or vaporware. At best, CES is a demoware festival. That’s part of the reason why I never go to CES. However, you do get a good feel for strategy from some key tech vendors.

With that in mind, here are my top 5 performances at CES from a strategic perspective.

Motorola Mobility: CEO Sanjay Jha did what he had to at CES. First, he diversified with AT&T and showed off the Atrix, which looks like a interesting contender to win the superphone crown. James Kendrick already has it pegged as best in show. Motorola was also out front with its Verizon Wireless 4G LTE launch with the Bionic. Toss in Motorola Mobility’s Xoom tablet (right), which appears to be a showpiece for Google’s Android Honeycomb effort, and the company had a solid CES. Motorola Mobility sees itself as a bridge between computing and mobility.

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Stifel Nicolaus analyst Doug Reid said:

Motorola Mobility confirmed steps to diversify carrier relationships beyond Verizon (specifically, with Atrix 4G on AT&T) give us increased confidence that management is effectively addressing the threat of iPhone arriving on Verizon in 1Q11.

Grade: A. See all on Motorola Mobility.

Nvidia: The graphics chip maker is really stepping on the gas. Its Tegra2 is at the heart of several new handsets from Motorola and LG. In addition, Nvidia is positioned at the heart of 4G devices. With Motorola’s Atrix, which docks to create a PC, Nvidia is subliminally positioning itself beyond phones. Speaking of that move, Nvidia also unveiled a CPU effort. Simply put, Nvidia was everywhere at CES—even at Audi press conferences.

Grade: A+

Samsung: At CES, Samsung is everywhere. The company is talking phones, PCs, TVs and everything in between. The biggest standout for Samsung was its slider PC, which is a workable mix between a tablet and a laptop. Is Samsung’s device an iPad killer? No way. However, Samsung may just have found a way to create a netbook done right. On the 4G device front, Samsung was also all over the place boasting powerful Android smartphones. One knock on Samsung was all the talk about Smart TV, which could be a rathole since the market is so fragmented. Also see:

* CES: First look at the Samsung’s first sliding laptop PC
* Image Gallery: Close-up look at Samsung’s first sliding laptop computer

Grade: B

Apple: Apple wasn’t at CES, but the company looks better than everyone there strategically. The biggest takeaway: Despite dozens of tablets at CES there was nothing that looked ready to duel with the iPad. Motorola’s Xoom looks promising, but the tablet needs to get to market first.

Grade: A

Google: The biggest event of CES—in my view—was the long demonstration of Android Honeycomb. Overall, the video—relayed by Jason Hiner—was impressive. If the tablet market is riding on Honeycomb, the demonstration gave me confidence that Android may just step up to the iPad plate. Google gets dinged because its TV efforts were barely worth talking about at CES.

CES video: Google’s surprise demo of Android 3.0 Honeycomb

Grade: B

Other thoughts:

* Microsoft Surface 2.0 is interesting and could be one helluva coffee table one day. Windows 8 nuggets were also notable.

* Dell’s 10-inch Streak is likely to be pushed as an enterprise device for key verticals.
* HTC had a solid CES, but is going to have trouble standing out in the Android brawl with Motorola and Samsung. I’m not sure the next-gen Sense—touted by AT&T—is much of a selling point.
* 4G marketing is a complete mess for consumers. Every carrier is now talking 4G—even if technically their networks are built for “4G speeds.” The 4G marketing is only going to confuse the consumer and everyone and their mother will be 4Gwashing. The term 4G will be meaningless by March. See: CES: The Real Cost of 4G

CCNA Training, CCNA Certification key Understanding the critical role of Cisco’s Access Control Server in Cisco NAC « CCNA KEY

2011-01-08T13:05:00.000-08:00

Typically, you only hear about the importance of the Cisco ACS server for VPN and dial-up authentication, authorization, and accounting. However, today the Cisco ACS server is being used as the central posture server when implementing Cisco's Network Access Control (CNAC). Let's discuss the role ACS plays in NAC.

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What is the Cisco ACS Server?

It's the job of Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) to offer authentication, accounting, and authorization services to network devices. It includes routers, switches, Cisco PIX firewalls, and network access servers. Cisco Secure Access Control Server supports two major AAA protocols; namely, TACACS+ and RADIUS. Figure A shows an example of how Cisco ACS plays a role in the typical network for wireless network authentication.
Figure A

Cisco ACS can work with wireless network authentication.

Cisco ACS not only centralizes authentication (who you are) but also authorization (what you can access) and accounting (the logging of what when you logged in and out, as well as what you were granted access to). Traditionally, this was just needed for dial-up users over modem phone lines; later, for Internet VPN users. However, beginning with ACS version 4.0, Cisco ACS is performing the same authentication, authorization, and accounting functions for networks that are NAC-enabled.

You can obtain Cisco ACS in either a Windows version or an appliance version. The appliance version is called the Cisco ACS Solution Engine. The UNIX version of Cisco ACS has been discontinued.
What is a posture validation server?

When learning about and implementing Cisco NAC, there are some new terms that you must learn. One of many such terms is the posture validation server. Exactly what is this? The short answer is that Cisco ACS is the posture validation server.

Cisco Secure Access Control Server plays a prominent role in Cisco NAC as a policy decision point. Generally speaking, Cisco Secure Access Control Server connects with the Cisco Trust Agent to build much of the NAC framework. The Cisco Secure Access Control Server judges the state or health of the host. Additionally, you have a choice of downloading access lists and VLAN assignment to the NAD, to control the PC host.

The best part about Cisco Secure Access Control Server is that it also implements security policy verification of host credentials. This, in turn, enforces policy items like antivirus signature file version and OS patch level. You can extend the Cisco Secure Access Control Server policies by forwarding credentials to third-party servers.

There are some who believe the performance of the Cisco ACS server needs to be increased in order to support Cisco NAC; generally, this is not true. While Cisco ACS plays an important role in the Cisco NAC equation, it can do this for many thousands of users without a lot of horsepower.

To see what the Cisco ACS Web console looks like, check out Figure B.
Figure B

The Cisco ACS Web console.

Figure C shows Cisco NAC and how ACS plays a role.
Figure C

In this diagram, ACS is the Cisco Policy Server.
What are profiles and postures?

Cisco's NAC relies on the RADIUS authorization protocol to communicate the authorization information to ACS. The RADIUS request will contain VSAs, or vendor specific attributes. Back on the ACS server, there will be a NAP (network access profile) that determines what to do with the RADIUS request. That is because the ACS server is probably not only authenticating NAC hosts and NADs, but also VPN clients and other RADIUS clients.

Next, the ACS Server checks the authentication credentials against its own internal database, or Microsoft Active Directory (AD), for example. After that, the Type Length Value (TLV) and posture of the host requesting accesses is checked against the posture validation rules. These posture validation rules are a series of polices with multiple rules inside each policy. The decision that the ACS server makes about the posture of the PC host is made on a first-match basis. This means the NAC administrator must write the rules in a way that the most common rule is matched first. Usually, the first rule is that the client be healthy and is allowed access to the network.

Optionally, the ACS server can send the credentials off to a third-party posture validation server. This is primarily because the third-party validation server can have other types of validations and features that ACS does not support. For example, the Trend Micro OfficeScan solution works with Cisco ACS and the NAC framework to check a user's posture when it comes to the state of that user's antivirus client. Is that AV client up-to-date? Another similar solution is the McAfee Policy Enforcer.
What are audit servers?

While Cisco ACS can do auditing and logging of certain user activities, there are also third-party audit servers that are compatible with the NAC framework, such as the Qualsys Appliance, McAfee Policy Enforcer, and Altiris.
What's the downside to using Cisco ACS?

If you implement Cisco NAC, you are basically choosing to implement Cisco ACS as well. With that, there are some downsides that you should consider:

* You'll most likely want to implement 802.1X. This can be complex and will require some user training.
* You'll need Cisco routers and switches.
* You'll have to use Cisco RADIUS for authentication and the Cisco ACS server as your authentication server.
* The Cisco ACS server cannot protect itself from being attacked or from having malicious code loaded on it. Therefore, you must be very careful to apply Windows security patches and use a host-based firewall on the ACS Server.

In conclusion

The Cisco ACS server is a critical part of Cisco's NAC solution. With the help of Cisco Secure Access Control Server, you can decide who can login to the network based on their credentials. From there, you can decide if that device is healthy enough to be on the network: Do they have all the right patches, antivirus updates, and firewall settings? In addition, you can assign a different set of privileges to each user in the network. Finally, you can audit that user's activity of logging in and out of the network. Besides being a Cisco NAC AAA server, Cisco ACS also performs AAA for wireless LAN devices, dial-up users, VPN users, and more.

CCNA Training, CCNA Certification key Learn the components of Cisco’s NAC Framework « CCNA KEY

2011-01-08T12:48:00.000-08:00

Cisco's NAC Framework is an architectural design for how multiple hardware and software components can work together to protect your network from unhealthy clients. Those clients could be PC's without the latest security patches, the latest anti-virus definitions, or a personal firewall enabled. In this article, I'll attempt to explain the complex NAC Framework as clearly as possible.

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What are the components of the Cisco NAC Framework?

Cisco's NAC Framework attempts to solve a complex problem, and is consequently a complex solution. A full-blown implementation of the NAC Framework is not an easy task because the architecture includes lots of different components from Cisco and other vendors. For example, there is a NAC policy manager, multiple network systems, an audit server, a remediation server, and third-party security software posture validation servers. Figure A shows how the framework would work:
Figure A

The Cisco NAC Framework.

It's quite a challenge for both security and network personnel to make sure that above-mentioned components work cohesively. Irrespective of that, the Cisco-led NAC initiative is supported by majority of vendors associated with endpoint security, secure access gateways, and remediation servers.
How does the Cisco NAC Framework work?

So what can the Cisco NAC Framework do for you? Well, a lot. Here's how it works:

* If a PC host is attempting to access the network, it must be authenticated and audited for policy compliance. This attempt triggers a NAC Process.
* The PC host is running the Cisco Trust Agent (CTA).
* The Network Access Device (NAD) is the Ethernet switch attempting to initiate the network access on behalf of the PC host.
* The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is used and the host credentials are sent to a Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS).
* Until the entire process is complete, the PC host (your potentially malicious computer) is only passing credentials through from the Cisco Trust Agent to the network. The PC host cannot really communicate on the network.
* The Cisco Trust Agent passes credentials through a secure tunnel so that the NAD cannot see them.
* The ACS Server can pass the credentials to other servers. For example, much of the time today, these credentials are sent to Windows AD servers who can verify the credentials used. However, the credentials could also go to other servers, like LDAP or one-time-password servers.
* Based on the response of one or more authentication servers, the ACS server can grant, deny, or quarantine the PC host requesting network access. Additionally, the ACS Server can assign different levels of network access.
* To verify security policy compliance of the PC host, Cisco NAC Framework conducts network and agent-based scans.
* The Cisco NAC Framework can implement compliance checks on all types of devices.
* The Cisco NAC Framework notifies users of connection status, and if there's any problem, it automatically corrects problems by updating the machine's patches, firewall, or other settings. Optionally, the host PC can be notified whether his or her credentials allowed them network access with a pop-up window or similar function. For example, the user could get a message: "Your computer is lacking the necessary updates and therefore is not granted access to the network. In order to resume normal network access, please update your computer now at the following location: [URL]."

Figure B helps better explain the process:
Figure B

The connection process.

You should note that usually the 802.1X network authentication protocol is used to authenticate the devices to the network. The switch that the NAD is connected to must support 802.1X, or the device cannot be truly quarantined until it is authenticated and scanned.
What are the components of Cisco's NAC Framework?

Now that you understand how the framework works, you should learn a little bit about the components of the framework. These are as follows:

* Posture: The posture of a host is a set of credentials and attributes that define the state or health of a user's computer and the applications on that computer.
* Cisco Trusted Agent: Cisco Trusted Agent (CTA) is one of the integral components of Cisco NAC Framework. The CTA is termed a posture agent. Cisco Trusted Agent is basically an installed software client whose main responsibility is to collect state information from security software on the endpoint (the NAD). In addition, it also communicates the "posture" (or what it learns) to the Cisco ACS Policy Server.

It's worth mentioning in this regard that Cisco Trusted Agent only communicates with client applications that are NAC-enabled by Cisco partners. There are around 50 vendors in the market actively participating in the NAC initiative. It includes, leading patch management vendors, client security vendors, and antivirus vendors.

* Network Access Devices (NAD): The NAD is, most commonly, the switch that the PC is connected to. However, it could also be a router, VPN concentrators, or other similar network access device. Many vendors switch manufacturers support the Cisco NAC Framework.
* AAA Policy Server: The AAA policy server is the Cisco Secure Access Control Server (or ACS). The main function of the ACS Server is to act as the policy decision point in NAC deployments. Apart from that, Cisco Secure Access Control Server also evaluates user credentials and calculates the security posture of network endpoints.

Frequently, the Cisco Secure ACS Server sends out per-user authorization to Cisco access devices with the help of downloaded access control lists. If you're running non-Cisco access devices, don't worry: Cisco Secure Access Control Server sends out per user authorization in this scenario as well.

The Cisco ACS Server is a Cisco application that runs on a Windows or Linux Server. ACS Servers can be scaled to very large implementations. Even without NAC, the Cisco ACS system operates as a centralized RADIUS or TACACS+ server. In general, the Cisco Secure Access Control Server manages the authorization, accounting, and authentication of users who access corporate information in a network.

The main advantage of Cisco Secure Access Control Server is that it gives you an authority to control user access to the network. You also get the power to authorize different kinds of network services for users. If you want to keep a record of all network user actions, you can do so easily with Cisco Secure Access Control Server.

* Directory Servers: The Directory Servers offers user IDs, authorization privileges, and group membership information.
* Posture Validation Server: As already mentioned, Cisco Secure Access Control Server has an ability to pass posture data to application-specific posture validation servers, which are normally given by third-party security vendors. Posture Validation Server judges whether endpoint software is up to the mark or not. On the basis of Posture Validation Server evaluation, Cisco Secure Access Control Server allows or disallows user access to networks.
* Remediation Servers: It's the job of remediation servers to bring devices back into compliance. The best part about remediation servers is that they can be as straightforward as a Web server that supports software downloads. Apart from that, remediation servers can automatically evaluate devices and if needed also supply mandatory software updates.

Parts of the greater whole

Cisco's NAC Framework is an architectural design for how multiple hardware and software components can work together to protect your network from unhealthy clients. While the Framework isn't as easy to use as the Cisco NAC Appliance, it does offer the benefit of bringing together offerings from various third-party security companies. At this point, you should understand the different components of the Cisco NAC Framework -- posture agent (Cisco Trust Agent), posture validation server (Cisco ACS Server), Network Access Device (NAD) -- the Cisco switch, and the remediation server (where users will go to get the firewall, OS, or AV software needed to get the PC host in compliance).

SolutionBase: Get familiar with Cisco’s NAC solution

2011-01-08T12:33:00.000-08:00

Network Admission Control (NAC) is a solution that allows network administrators to define and enforce security policies across network devices. NAC allows only healthy hosts to access your network, but which are the healthy hosts? As this is not a simple question to answer, the solution can also be complex. Cisco NAC (CNAC) is no different. In this article, we will learn about Cisco’s solution to NAC and see how it stacks up to the competition.
What is Cisco’s NAC solution?

Cisco’s original NAC solution is the NAC Framework. Later, Cisco bought a company called Perfigo and released the NAC Appliance. Both of these solutions have merit, and one is not a replacement for the other. So while these are two valid but distinctly separate choices, Cisco has announced that they plan to combine these solutions in the future. It’s rumored that Cisco will call the solution OneNAC, which makes one wonder if the second revision would be called TwoNAC, and so on.

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Why should I use NAC?

There are a number of benefits to using a NAC system from any vendor, not just Cisco Systems. As malware, viruses, and spyware just continue to become greater issues, NAC becomes more important. If your manager asks why you’re looking into NAC, you can give an informed response:

* Protects your company’s assets: Those assets could be your data (many times, that’s the company’s most valuable asset). NAC enforces the policies that you define to prevent your company’s data from being sent out to Russia or China.
* Protects against business disruption: When a computer connects to your network, an Internet worm on that computer could bring your whole network down.

What is the Cisco NAC Framework?

The Cisco NAC Framework is just a framework, not really a solution. The NAC Framework is architecture that Cisco offers to partners and customers. By using their framework, the third-party partner’s products can interoperate with Cisco’s products to create a complete solution. Once the Framework solution is put together with the partners’ products, it can create a highly-automated NAC infrastructure.

One of my initial concerns with the Cisco NAC Framework is that it’s really a framework to which over 75 Cisco security partners subscribe to make their products compatible and interoperable. The framework isn’t a solution in itself, nor is it a standalone product. Can the products of 75 different vendors really work together to create a successful solution? And who would you buy these products from; 75 different vendors? Initially, it doesn’t sound like a solution that’s easy to understand or implement.

However, based on my research, most people say that the products of the multiple Cisco NAC framework partners work well with the Cisco NAC policy controller. However, just as with any complex project, you may have to invest heavily in software, hardware, and services to make a Cisco NAC Framework implementation a success.
What is the Cisco NAC Appliance?

Previously called Cisco Clean Access, Cisco NAC Appliance is the alternative to the Cisco NAC Framework. The Cisco NAC Appliance offers companies an option to deploy a self-contained endpoint assessment, remediation service, and policy management solution all in one box. The best part is that this is all implemented quickly without need for modifications.

The downside of the Cisco NAC Appliance is that its capabilities are narrower when compared to a full-blown NAC Framework implementation; however, the time and effort needed to implement the NAC Appliance is generally also smaller. Figure A shows what the Cisco NAC Appliance looks like.
Figure A

The Cisco NAC Appliance.
Which is right for you?

There’s a lot of talk about the NAC Framework, but Cisco recommends the NAC Appliance for initial deployments in their FAQ:

Cisco recommends the NAC Appliance to most customers as their initial deployment method. The NAC Appliance delivers a successful solution to solve our customers’ real world business problems. We have established a large and rapidly growing customer install base with worldwide NAC Appliance deployments.

However, that is only a recommendation for initial deployments. You might not be facing a clean scenario that could be described as an initial deployment; perhaps you’re using 802.1X, or you have part of a solution installed, but not others. In some cases, the Cisco NAC Framework can also turn out to be useful. This is especially true when you require extensive integration with third-party NAC-enabled products. When the NAC Appliance isn’t possible for you, the NAC Framework is the option to choose.

While the NAC Appliance is the easiest road for a single network, it doesn’t scale well. And though the NAC Framework might sound like a great all-encompassing alternative, most IT shops don’t end up deploying a full NAC framework when they choose that option, simply because of the time, resources, and infrastructure costs involved.
Interoperability of NAC solutions

Cisco’s NAC Framework is what Cisco will really point to when it comes to questions of interoperability. However, you have to look at the multitude of NAC parts and pieces and wonder how or if they could all work together. Just in the Cisco arena, all of these pieces can be part of a NAC solution:

* Cisco Secure Agent (CSA)
* Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (MARS)
* Cisco Trust Agent (CTA)
* Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS)
* Cisco routers with NAC
* Cisco switches with NAC
* Cisco VPN concentrators
* Cisco wireless devices

As those are all Cisco devices, it’s likely that they all can work together to provide a NAC solution; however, the computing environment is not homogenous. So what about your PCs, laptops, PDAs, and such?

Fortunately, for those of us who use the Windows OS, Microsoft and Cisco announced a deal to make Cisco NAC and Microsoft NAP compatible with each other. This seems like a win/win situation for the consumer; we don’t have to choose, and allows us to protect our investment in their NAC/NAP infrastructure. I wish more vendors would follow their lead; this interoperability isn’t functional until you start using Windows Server 2008.
Cisco NAC and the competition

Although Cisco’s NAC and Microsoft’s NAP may be two most recognizable buzzwords revolving around NAC, that doesn’t mean they’re the only game in town; there’s a lot of competition out there. NAC is still a young technology with lots of innovation going on in the marketplace. Here’s the short list of CNAC competitors:

1. Bradford Networks: All Bradford does is NAC.
2. ConSentry Networks: Their product line is called LAN Shield and they focus on NAC.
3. ForeScout Technologies: Their two products are CounterACT and ActiveScout. Forescout has had good reviews for their NAC solutions.
4. InfoExpress: Offers CyberGatekeeper Dynamic NAC. They claim that you won’t have to make any network changes.
5. Juniper Networks: The large firewall & router manufacturer produces Unified Access Control (UAC) and sells the Infranet Controller as their policy controller.
6. Lockdown Networks: Produces Real NAC and has had good reviews in tests.
7. McAfee: The large software company produces McAfee Policy Enforcer and ePolicy Orchestator. Together, these are supposed to provide a complete NAC solution, but they still lack some basic NAC features.
8. StillSecure: Their NAC product is called Safe Access.
9. Symantec: This large software company offers SNAC (Symantec NAC), which won the title of best overall NAC solution in a recent test.
10. Vernier Networks: They claim that over 1,000 organizations have deployed their NAC product.

While Cisco’s NAC solution may seem like a safe bet, you might want to take a look at the other vendors: in a recent unbiased test done between 13 NAC vendors (including Cisco), Symantec’s solution won (the runners-up were Forescount, LockDown, and Juniper). To Cisco fans, it may seem unimaginable for Cisco not to rate in the top four NAC vendors; but, in my opinion, the test results show that Cisco’s solution is more fragmented and immature than the competition.
In summary

Cisco currently offers two NAC solutions: Framework and Appliance. The framework is an architecture of which many parts of your network (Cisco or non-Cisco) can belong. The framework is more of a guide on how various pieces might fit together to create a NAC solution. However, a complete Cisco NAC Framework can be difficult and costly to implement. On the other hand, the Cisco Appliance can be deployed in-band or out-of-band and is used to block or quarantine clients directly.

As the NAC market is still young, Cisco has some tough competition out there. Although it is just one of many NAC solutions available today, I feel that the Cisco NAC appliance deserves a review when considering enterprise NAC solutions.

SolutionBase: Cisco’s NAC hardware explained

2011-01-08T12:22:00.000-08:00

Cisco Network Admission Control (NAC) is a system to enforce the security policy of your company on all devices attempting network access. The Cisco NAC solution is made up of many different pieces of hardware, software, and services; this article will explain its many pieces.
What hardware makes up Cisco’s NAC solution?

On Cisco’s network security solutions Web page, you’ll find the following list of Cisco technologies, all of which play a part in the complete Cisco NAC solution:

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* Advanced Services for Network Security
* Cisco Security Agent (CSA)
* Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis and Response System (MARS)
* Cisco Trust Agent 2.0 (CTA)
* Cisco Secure Access Control Server for Windows (ACS)
* Cisco Secure Access Control Server Solution Engine (ACS)
* Cisco Works Interface Configuration Manager (ICM)
* Cisco Works Security Information Management Solution (CW-SIMS)
* NAC-enabled routers
* Router security
* Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrators
* Cisco Unified Wireless Network
* Cisco Catalyst switches

Let’s discuss some of the more critical pieces of Cisco’s NAC solution.
Cisco NAC-enabled routers

The recently released Cisco router NAT module enforces NAC at the remote branch locations or ancillary buildings of a campus. Apart from that, the NAC router module also improves the overall security of the network by making sure that all incoming users and devices comply with security policies.

Additionally, the Cisco NAC router module (part # NME-NAC-K9) brings the capabilities of Cisco NAC Appliance Server to Cisco 2800 and 3800 Series Integrated Services Routers. This module helps network administrators by not having to deploy NAC appliances across the board and it helps to consolidate the administrative tasks into fewer boxes.

Amazingly, this module is actually a 1 GHz Intel Celeron PC, with 512 MB RAM, 64 MB of Compact Flash, and an 80 GB SATA hard drive. All that fits onto a single 1 pound module that slides into a router and enforces your security policies. This module requires a 2800 or 3800 series router running IOS 12.4(11)T or later.
Cisco NAC Appliance

The single most popular piece of the Cisco NAC solution has been the Cisco NAC Appliance. As evident from the name itself, Cisco NAC Appliance is an appliance-based solution that offers fast deployment, policy management, and enforcement of security policies.

With the Cisco NAC Appliance, you can opt for an in-band or out-of-band solution. The in-band solution is for smaller deployments. As your network grows into a more campus environment, you may not be able to keep in the in-band design. In that case, you can move to the out-of-band deployment scenario.

Here are some advantages of the Cisco NAC Appliance:

* Identity: At the point of authentication, the Cisco NAC Appliance recognizes users, as well as their devices and their responsibility in the network.
* Compliance: Cisco NAC Appliance also takes into account whether machines are compliant with security policies or not. This includes enforcing operating system updates, antivirus definitions, firewall settings, and antispyware software definitions.
* Quarantine: If the machines attempting to gain access don’t meet the policies of the network, the Cisco NAC Appliance can quarantine these machines and bring them into compliance (by applying patches or changing settings), before releasing them onto the network.

For more information about the Cisco NAC Appliance, see the Cisco NAC Appliance datasheet.
Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS)

The Cisco ACS Server could be called the “brain” of the Cisco NAC solution. It is here that users’ credentials are checked to see if they are valid, policies are sent back to be enforced, and activities are logged. The ACS server is called an AAA Server because it performs authentication, authorization, and accounting.

This server runs on an existing Windows server in your organization and can use other existing databases in your organization to verify users’ credentials. For example, most companies have ACS point toward their Windows Active Directory (AD) system to look up credentials. If those credentials are valid, then ACS can enforce network authorization polices on those users, with the help of the network hardware: NAC Appliance, Router NAC module, or ASA/PIX firewalls.
Cisco Security Agent (CSA)

Cisco CSA is a software client that is run on every machine in an organization. These clients talk to a centralized policy server. Together, these software applications know what software and activities that occur on each PC in the organization are or are not “normal”. The CSA agent may alert on or block certain activities that it sees as abnormal.

When compared to anti-virus software that depends on definition updates to stay current, Cisco touts that the CSA never needs updating because it is constantly “learning” and monitoring activities, not definitions of viruses.

For more information about the Cisco CSA solution, see the Cisco CSA datasheet.
Cisco Trust Agent (CTA)

You can think of the Cisco Trust Agent as the “NAC Client”. The CTA runs on each PC in the organization. It talks to the NAC Appliance, for example, to tell it about the state of the device attempting to access the network. For example, the CTA reports the version of the OS, patch level, the AV definition level, the firewall status, and more. According to Cisco, the CTA “interrogates devices.” You can obtain CTA free of charge from Cisco Systems.
Cisco Works Security Information Management Solution (CW-SIMS)

The Cisco Works Security Information Management Solution (CW-SIMS) in the centralized repository that all Cisco devices use for security logging and other information. According to Cisco, this application “integrates, correlates, and analyzes security event data from the enterprise network to improve visibility and provide actionable intelligence for strengthening an organization’s security.”

With so many security devices in your network, one application has to try to correlate all the logs and security information that is generated. According to Cisco, here are the features that the CW-SIMS offers:

* Comprehensive Correlation: Statistical, rules-based, and vulnerability correlation of events as they happen, in real time, across all integrated Cisco network devices.
* Threat Visualization: See a visual status and generate reports of all the security events as they happen across your network.
* Incident Resolution Management: SIMs integrates with common helpdesk packages to track security events until resolution.
* Integrated Knowledge Base: SIMS can be a source of knowledge about security issues and how they are resolved.
* Real-Time Notification: SIMS can notify security admins, in real time, when events occur.

For more information about the Cisco CW-SIMS solution, see the Cisco SW-SIMS datasheet.
Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (MARS)

While MARS may seem similar to CW-SIMS, it is quite different. MARS actually understands the configuration and topology of your network. You can think of MARS as a “virtual security admin” for your network — working while you sleep.

MARS uses NetFlow data from Cisco routers to have a real-time understanding of network traffic. It knows what is considered normal and what is not; this is called behavioral analysis. With behavioral analysis, MARS can stop abnormal network traffic. MARS has over 150 audit compliance templates ,and will make recommendations on how to remediate threats to your network.

MARS is actually an appliance that you install on your network. This appliance comes in a variety of sizes and license levels based on the size of your network. Cisco Security MARS and Cisco Security Manager are part of the Cisco Security Management Suite.
In summary

To be a complete solution that can fulfill the Cisco Self-Defending Network framework, the hardware and software of Cisco’s NAC solution must integrate well. With nine or more different pieces of hardware and software related to NAC, the challenge of acquiring (i.e., affording), learning to configure, deploying, and monitoring these solutions can be a large task for any organization. While having the centralized software applications like CW-SIMS and MARS can really bring it all together, those applications will take time, effort, and expertise to master. For this reason, I can relate to anyone who says that deploying a security solution is difficult.

In this article, I’ve attempted to clarify the purpose of the different NAC security solutions offered by Cisco today; with this information, I hope that your quest for strong network security can be realized.

Free Training | Free Certification Free MCITP Free Training Key » Blog Archive » TS: Configuring Microsoft Windows Vista Client – 70-620

2011-01-08T12:02:00.000-08:00

QUESTION 76
You work as the desktop support technician at CertKingdom.com. The CertKingdom.com network consists
of a single Active Directory domain named CertKingdom.com. You have been assigned to the
CertKingdom.com help desk to aid all the CertKingdom.com users who experience trouble with their
workstations. There are both desktop and laptop workstations in operation at CertKingdom.com.
The manager of the CertKingdom.com Sales department named Clive Wilson contacted the
CertKingdom.com help desk to ask for assistance with his department’s main workstation. According
to Clive Wilson, he makes use of many Web sites and services to order and track sales from
several companies. This result in him having a lot of custom settings and preferences on these
sites that he does not want to lose. Many of the sites have passwords that the manager is no
longer required to enter because they are stored locally on the computer.
Clive Wilson has recently delegated the task of processing sales orders online to some of his staff
members. He would like them to have their own credentials on the Web sites, so they can track
their own sales. To this end you are required to remove the stored passwords from the computer
and prevent them from being stored locally again.
Which two of the following actions should you perform?

A. Navigate to the Advanced tab in Internet Options and click Restore advanced settings.
B. Navigate to the Advanced tab in Internet Options and click Reset
C. On the Privacy tab in Internet Options, set the level to High.
D. On the Content tab in Internet Options, click the AutoComplete Settings button and clear the
User names and passwords on forms check box.
E. Click Tools in the Internet Explorer and then click Delete Browsing History. Click Delete
passwords.

Answer: D,E

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Explanation:
To remove the passwords, you should open Internet Explorer, click Tools, and then click Delete
Browser History. Then click Delete Passwords to remove the local passwords stored for Internet
content.
You also must clear the User names and passwords on forms option in the AutoComplete Settings
dialog box. This will prevent user name and password settings from being stored locally in the
future.

QUESTION 77
You work as the desktop support technician at CertKingdom.com. The CertKingdom.com network
consists of a single Active Directory domain named CertKingdom.com. You have been assigned to the
CertKingdom.com help desk to aid all the CertKingdom.com users who experience trouble with their
workstations. There are both desktop and laptop workstations in operation at CertKingdom.com.
A user named Mia Hamm contacted the CertKingdom.com help desk to report that she is experiencing
trouble with viewing Web sites in Microsoft Internet Explorer 7.0. She says that all Web pages are
displayed in the upper-left corner of the tab. The text as well as the images appear very small and
make it very awkward to view. You need to enable Mia Hamm to view the pages at their original
size. To this end you therefore change the text size from medium to large, but it has very little
impact on the text, and the images are still too small.
What should you do?

A. You need to decrease the screen resolution.
B. You need to increase the screen resolution.
C. You need to decrease the monitor refresh rate.
D. You need to increase the monitor refresh rate.
E. You need to decrease the zoom level for the tab.
F. You need to increase the zoom level for the tab.

Answer: F

Explanation:
Internet Explorer 7.0 allows one to view Web pages at different zoom levels and judging by the
symptoms described in the question it is possible that Mia Hamm accidentally pressed the
Ctrlkeys to zoom out. Changing the zoom level affects the entire page, resizing both text and
images. If you change the zoom level to 100 percent, Web pages will appear in their original
sizes. Therefore you should increase the zoom level for the tab.

QUESTION 78
You are employed as an administrator at CertKingdom.com. The CertKingdom.com network consists of a
single Active Directory domain named CertKingdom.com.
CertKingdom.com contains a computer named CERTKINGDOM-WS621 that is running Microsoft
Windows Vista. You have received instructions to remove any Microsoft Windows Internet
Explorer 7 add-ons from CERTKINGDOM-WS621 that do not have prior approval from Microsoft,
System manufacturer or Service provider.
What should you do?

A. You need to remove any add-ons that are not found in the list of add-ons that are at currently
loaded in Windows Internet Explorer 7.
B. You need to remove all add-ons then reapply the add-ons you want to keep.
C. You need to remove any add-ons that are not found in the list of add-ons that run without
requiring permission.
D. You need to remove any add-ons that are not found in the Temporary Internet Files folder.
E. You need to remove any add-ons that are not found in the list of add-ons used by Windows
Internet Explorer 7.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Internet Explorer 7 add-ons that are approved by Microsoft, System manufacturer and the Service
provider do not require your permission to run. They will run automatically. Any add-on that isn’t
approved will require your permission to run. Therefore, to remove all the unapproved add-ons,
you need to remove any add-ons that are not found in the list of add-ons that run without requiring
permission.

QUESTION 79
You are employed as a network administrator at CertKingdom.com. The CertKingdom.com network
consists of a single Active Directory domain named CertKingdom.com.
A CertKingdom.com user named Mia Hamm who works in the Marketing department of CertKingdom.com,
has been assigned a computer named CERTKINGDOM-WS623. CERTKINGDOM-WS623 has the popup
blocker enabled. To do her daily work she visits a certain Web site which makes use of popups.
Mia Hamm wants to view the pop-ups from this Web site while maintaining the highest level of
security for all other Web sites.
Which two of the following options would achieve this goal?

A. You need to disable the pop-up blocker.
B. You need to set the default security level to High.
C. You need to add the URL of the Web site to the list of allowed sites.
D. You need to set the default security level to Medium.
E. You need to visit the Web site and select the Always allow pop-ups from this site option.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
To enable the pop-ups from a certain website to be viewed, the URL of the Web can be added to
the list of allowed sites in the Pop-Up Blocker settings. Alternatively, you can visit the website and
select the Always allow pop-ups from this site option.

QUESTION 80
You work as the Help Desk technician at CertKingdom.com. The CertKingdom.com network consists of a
single Active Directory domain named CertKingdom.com. CertKingdom.com also operates a Customer
Care Help Desk for the benefit of its customers.
A CertKingdom.com customer named Rory Allen has contacted you at the Customer Care Help Desk.
Rory Allen has configured Microsoft Internet Explorer 7 with a Really Simple Syndication (RSS)
subscription to a website. Rory Allen now has a problem that the RSS subscription Web page has
failed and show the information that the RSS feed Web page displays from the website.
How can you assist Rory Allen to configure Internet Explorer to display the current content from
the RSS feed?

A. Instruct Rory Allen to add the URL of the Web site to the list of allowed sites.
B. Instruct Rory Allen to configure the RSS feed properties to use the maximum interval value
C. Instruct Rory Allen to enable the feed reading view in the RSS feed settings.
D. Instruct Rory Allen to configure the RSS feed properties to use the minimum interval value.
E. Instruct Rory Allen to disable the pop-up blocker for the website.

Answer: D

Free Training | Free Certification Free MCITP Free Training Key » Blog Archive » A+ OS technologies – 220-302

2011-01-08T11:52:00.000-08:00

QUESTION 77
An employer is concerned that a user may unknowingly launch a malicious .vbs file. The employer
wants to enable file extensions on all Windows XP computers. Which of the following actions
should be taken?

A. At the command line run C:\>compmgt /afiletype .vbs
B. At the command line run C:\>compmgt /tfiletype .vbs
C. Windows Explorer > Folder Options > File types
D. Windows Explorer > Folder Options > View

Answer: D

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QUESTION 78
When a technician has successfully completed a service call to a difficult customer, it would be
MOST important to:

A. take a break to calm down before handling the next problem.
B. follow up with the customer and verify that the customer is satisfied.
C. leave quickly and quietly before something else goes wrong.
D. notify the customer that the work is finished and the technician is leaving.

Answer: B

QUESTION 79
A technician observes that a user is storing passwords in a text file on the desktop. Which of the
following should the technician do?

A. Print out a copy of the file and show the file to theusers supervisor.
B. Ignore the file and not worry about what the user does with the information.
C. Email a copy of the file to thetechnicians supervisor.
D. Inform the user that this is a violation of thecompanys security policy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 80
Which of the following will prevent the Windows messenger service from displaying any
messages?

A. Start > Run > type CMD > type NET START messenger
B. Start > Run > type service.msc > right click on the messenger service > Properties > Start-up
type > Disable
C. Start > Run > type service.msc right click on the messenger service > Properties > Start-up
type > Automatic
D. Start > Run > type CMD > type NET START msg.exe

Answer: B

QUESTION 81
An angry customer is reporting problems with a computer. Which of the following would be the
FIRST step to take?

A. Tell the customer to calm down.
B. Tell the customer there is nothing to worry about.
C. Let the customer express frustration without interrupting.
D. Ask the support supervisor to take the call.

Answer: C

QUESTION 82
Which two of the following operating systems support system restore? (Select TWO)

A. Windows 2000
B. Windows XP
C. Windows NT
D. Windows Me
E. Windows 98 SE

Answer: B,D

QUESTION 83
Which of the following is the default name of the file that stores Virtual Memory on a Windows
2000 computer?

A. BOOT.INI
B. PAGEFILE.SYS
C. VMM386.SYS
D. WIN386.SWP

Answer: B

QUESTION 84
An A+ Professional is using SYSEDIT to modify settings for a user’s application. By using this tool,
which two files are automatically opened for editing? (Select TWO)

A. IO.SYS
B. BOOT.INI
C. AUTOEXEC.BAT
D. SYSTEM.INI

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 85
Which file system has built-in encryption support?

A. HPFS (high performance file system)
B. FAT16
C. FAT32
D. NTFS

Answer: D

QUESTION 86
An A+ Professional copies several files from a CD-ROM to the hard drive of a computer. The files
have the attribute Read Only. Which command line function and switches can easily remove the
Read Only file attribute from all the files in a particular folder?

A. ATTRIB -A
B. ATTRIB +R /S
C. ATTRIB -R /S
D. ATTRIB /S

Answer: C

QUESTION 87
In Windows XP, which command line program is used to remove an additional operating system?

A. SETUP.EXE /X
B. Bootcfg /delete /ID#
C. Format C: /S
D. WINNT32.EXE /B

Answer: B

QUESTION 88
Which utility can be used to optimize disk performance?

A. FDISK
B. FORMAT
C. SCANDISK
D. DEFRAG

Answer: D

QUESTION 89
NTUSER.DAT and NTUSER.DAT.LOG are associated with which one of the following Registry
Hives?

A. HKEY_USERS\.DEFAULT
B. HKEY_USERS_CURRENT
C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
D. HKEY_CURRENT_PROFILE

Answer: C

QUESTION 90
Which two operating systems have the Registry editing command Regedt32? (Select TWO)

A. Windows Me
B. Windows NT Workstation
C. Windows XP Professional
D. Windows 98 SE

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 91
Which of the following will allow modification of the Startup folder in
Windows 98 SE?

A. SYSEDIT
B. REGEDIT32
C. MSCONFIG
D. SCANREG

Answer: C

QUESTION 92
Which of the following is the name of the swap file for Windows 98?

A. PAGEFILE.SYS
B. WIN386.SWP
C. VIRTUAL.TMP
D. SWAPFILE.SYS

Answer: B

QUESTION 93
Which utility can a technician use in Windows 2000 to limit the access to Registry keys to certain
users?

A. EDIT.COM
B. REGEDIT.EXE
C. REGEDT32.EXE
D. SYSEDIT.EXE

Answer: C

QUESTION 94
In Windows 2000 Professional, what does the BOOT.INI file contain?

A. hardware profiles
B. boot order
C. default operating system
D. theLilo loader

Answer: C

QUESTION 95
Which Windows XP command allows for the retrieval of compressed files from the operating
system source files?

A. EXPAND
B. COMPRESS
C. OPENFILES
D. UNPACK

Answer: A

MCITP Certification Training Key Microsoft’s new policy sets firm support life cycle schedule | MCITP KEY

2011-01-08T10:03:00.000-08:00

Microsoft recently introduced a new product support life cycle policy designed to make support availability more predictable and consistent. This will allow customers to better plan their upgrades, instead of relying on announcements about the retirement of products or the discontinuation of support for them.

Under previous policies, customers couldn’t effectively plan upgrades. This had a significant impact on IT budgets and implementation plans. Microsoft’s new policy makes clear when the support for a product will end and what types of support are available during the product life cycle.

The new policy should be of great benefit to those who rely on Microsoft products, especially its operating systems.

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The policies
Microsoft has adopted two support policies—one that covers business and development software, the other for consumer products, hardware, and multimedia software. The primary difference between the two is that additional paid support is unavailable for consumer, hardware, and multimedia products.

Microsoft’s Support Lifecycle policy establishes two phases of support for business and development software.

The Mainstream Support Phase lasts at least five years from the product release date. Mainstream support provides the same options and services that are currently available, including free incident support, paid incident support, hourly charge support, warranty claim support, and hot fix support. In this phase, customers can suggest design changes or feature additions, and Microsoft will evaluate the requests.

At the end of that five-year period, customers can elect to purchase extended support, which covers the product for an additional two years. With extended support, you must pay for support on an hourly basis. To get hot fix support, you have to purchase a hot fix support contract within 90 days after the end of the mainstream period. During the extended phase, Microsoft will not respond to requests for warranty support, make design changes, or add new features.

Beyond the extended phase, customers can obtain additional support through Microsoft’s strategic partners. This custom support may include assisted support as well as hot fix level support.

Online self-help support—which includes access to the Microsoft Knowledge Base, FAQs, troubleshooting tools, and other resources—is available for a period of at least eight years after the product release date. So for at least one year after the end of the extended phase, customers will have access to online resources free of charge to resolve issues without contacting Microsoft.

For Microsoft’s consumer, hardware, and multimedia products, no extended support is available at the end of the mainstream phase. Customers will continue to have access to the self-help resources, however, for the same eight-year period from the product’s release.

Service packs and patches
In addition to the new support policy, Microsoft also announced a change in its Service Pack Support Policy, which extends the availability of support for product service packs.

Previously, Microsoft only offered support for the most recent service pack; it now offers support on the current and immediately preceding service packs. Support for preceding service packs will continue for up to one year after the release of the most current one. Customers can request new or receive existing hot fixes for both during the mainstream support phase.

Microsoft will not automatically create hot fixes for the immediately preceding service packs, however. If a customer needs a hot fix for the earlier service pack, it must contact Microsoft to request it.

Security patches
For business and development software, Microsoft will offer security patches through the extended support phase at no additional charge. Security fixes for most products will thus be available for seven years from the product release date.

Microsoft will provide security patches for its consumer, hardware, and multimedia products for five years—through the end of the mainstream support phase.

Coverage
Microsoft says the new policies cover most of its currently available and future product offerings. To verify that your product is covered by the policy, you should visit the product’s Web page or find it via the Locate Your Product page.

For additional information about Microsoft’s new policies, you can visit the Support Lifecycle Support Policy FAQ page.

Potential benefit
In the long run, the new policies likely won’t result in big changes in the way Microsoft’s customers use its products, but they will add better predictability to the product life spans. Because of the new policies, customers won’t be caught off guard by announcements of the discontinuation of support for particular products.

Why Microsoft bought Great Plains Software - MCTS KEY

2011-01-08T09:51:00.000-08:00

When Microsoft announced its acquisition of Great Plains Software at the end of 2000, many people began wondering: What does this mean for the future of Great Plains, other mid-market accounting software companies, and other accounting companies in general—and for the value-added reseller (VAR) channels that Microsoft and Great Plains have spent several years and millions of dollars to develop?

This acquisition also has significant ramifications for both the “big five” ERP vendors (Invensys/Baan, SAP, Oracle, JD Edwards, and PeopleSoft) and the little two (QuickBooks and NetLedger). Since almost all CIOs deal with one of these companies directly or indirectly, I think it makes sense for us to consider the possible outcomes of the acquisition.

What does this acquisition mean for the existing partner channels for Microsoft and Great Plains?
Microsoft needs to have an answer for customers who are seriously considering the Oracle database and financial products from the big five on the UNIX platform. This acquisition gives Microsoft the ability to give their medium to large enterprise customers “one-stop shopping” under the Microsoft brand, with the combination of Windows 2000, Microsoft Exchange, Microsoft SQL Server, and now Great Plains.

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This selection is beneficial for companies that want integrated solutions and for Microsoft. I’ve talked to companies in the past year that originally purchased Great Plains as an interim solution on their way to SAP before dumping SAP halfway through the conversion when they realized that Great Plains could do everything they needed. They were also able to get it fully operational in a fraction of the time it took to implement SAP.

Companies that have invested heavily in training and certifying their companies to deliver Great Plains solutions on Microsoft technology are also positioned to take advantage of this acquisition. Those reaping the greatest benefits will be the handful of companies that are both Great Plains Certified Hosting Providers and Microsoft Solution Provider Partners; they will immediately benefit from the marketing and support economies that will be achieved through the merger.

In addition, the president of the Great Plains division of Microsoft, Doug Burgum, has stated that he will continue with his strategy of being selective in building the traditional VAR and applications hosting channel. Companies that have not already made an investment in being Great Plains partners but who represent other mid-market accounting systems now have a difficult choice to make about the financial software they will represent in the future.

This merger could also spell trouble for traditional Great Plains VARs. Microsoft’s .NET platform and emphasis on ASPs and Web-based technologies make many existing VARs obsolete. These VARs will either have to partner with an ASP, significantly beef up their consulting and development practices, or make a move down market.

What does this mean for the accounting software market?
If you’re a mid-market accounting software company on a Microsoft platform or a company that relies on one, then you should seriously consider your strategy. During the past year, Great Plains gobbled up Solomon Software and RealWorld. Companies like Sage and Hyperion have to be looking over their shoulders.

This will also make it more difficult for the big five to move into the medium enterprise market. All of them (except Oracle) were counting on using Microsoft’s leverage on the server and the cost of the database to help them move into this space. Microsoft was clearly tired of losing competitive bids to UNIX and Oracle in this space and decided to take matters into its own hands.

But perhaps the most interesting story will be unfolding on the low end of the market. Quicken.com (with QuickBooks on the Net) and NetLedger (based on Oracle database technology) have made significant inroads into the small and medium business market. But by combining Great Plains with its bCentral small business service, Microsoft may have finally found a way to crack this market. Before this can happen, however, Great Plains has to be re-architected to eliminate its dependency on its proprietary development tool (Dexterity) and to be more Net (or .NET) friendly.

The Great Rewrite—Great Plains on Microsoft’s .NET platform
The acquisition is also great news for Microsoft’s .NET initiative. Great Plains had already announced a 24-month time frame to rewrite the entire Great Plains product line using .NET technology. This includes tight integration with all .NET Server products (specifically SQL Server 2000, BizTalk Server 2000, and Commerce Server 2000) and the replacement of Dexterity with C# as the core language.

I expect to see this timeline shrink dramatically. It’s possible that by the end of this year, Microsoft and Great Plains will release an enterprise production-level .NET accounting application that really shows off the power of the .NET environment.

Can Great Plains pull it off? This isn’t the first time Great Plains has made a significant commitment to Microsoft technology. It was the first mid-market accounting company to make significant investments away from Novell’s Btrieve (now Pervasive SQL) when other companies bet the ranch on Novell.

Since then, they’ve been huge supporters of SQL Server. Great Plains’ home office in Fargo has been a testing center for every new version since 6.0. The company also developed its own Transaction Server technology (called the Process Server) before Microsoft released Microsoft Transaction Services.

Great Plains is a company with significant technology resources and a loyal employee base. And it has one more attribute that will hopefully make its way into the Microsoft culture—it actually releases its products on time!