DES-6322 Specialist – Implementation Engineer, VxRail Exam

 

Certification Overview
Hyperconverged solutions simplify IT operations while reducing operational costs. A VxRail cluster allows businesses to start small when integrating into their datacenters and grown seamlessly. Individuals (internals or partners) supporting VxRail customers are required to understand and follow the implementation services in addition to understanding the extended VxRail environment. Individuals will use the certification to validate their knowledge to support implementation activities.

Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:

1. Achieve one of the following Associate level certifications*
• Associate – Converged Systems and Hybrid Cloud Version 2.0
• Associate – Cloud Infrastructure and Services Version 3.0

2. Pass the following Specialist exam on or after June 11, 2021:
• DES-6322 Specialist – Implementation Engineer, VxRail Exam

Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of June 11, 2021.
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements. *Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level requirement.

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist – Implementation Engineer, VxRail (DCS-IE) track.
This exam focuses on the overall product, hardware, and software requirements to implement a VxRail cluster. This includes an introduction to VxRail, hardware installation, pre-deployment tasks, environment validation, software implementation, post-deployment procedures, product scale-out options, REST API functionality, and common issues and troubleshooting of events.

Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
• Dell EMC VxRail 7.0.XXX
• Dell EMC PowerEdge Servers
• VMware vSphere
• VMware vSAN
• VMware vCenter

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

Introduction to VxRail (8%)
• Describe VxRail use cases, architecture, models, and software stack
• Describe VxRail management, licensing, and data protection options

VxRail Pre-deployment Tasks and Hardware Installation (12%)
• Describe VxRail pre-installation requirements and use of the configuration tools
• Describe VxRail system racking and cabling procedures
• Describe system power up/down and setting management VLAN procedures

VxRail Network Environment Requirements and Initialization (10%)
• Validate the network environment manually
• Validate the network environment using the Network Validation Tool
• Describe ToR network requirements and settings

VxRail System Initialization (17%)
• Describe considerations for deploying Embedded and External vCenter configurations
• Explain differences in the VxRail implementation procedures for various configuration options
• Perform a VxRail initialization using the VxRail First Run Wizard
• Explain requirements for 2-node implementations

VxRail Post-deployment Procedures (20%)
• Perform post-installation validation of the VxRail Cluster Configure support account, SRS, and perform software upgrades
• Describe how to Implement licenses for a VxRail cluster
• Explain the vSAN configuration settings and configure required vSAN settings post deployment
• Configure support account and SRS
• Complete a Test Plan and generate a VxRail As-Built Configuration report

VxRail Cluster Expansion and Stretched Clusters (13%)
• Describe VxRail Upgrade requirements and activities
• Describe VxRail appliance scale-out best practices and the cluster expansion process
• Describe the VxRail Stretched Cluster architecture, features, and requirements

VxRail Troubleshooting (13%)
• Perform VxRail log collections
• Describe VxRail troubleshooting resources and their uses
• Troubleshooting using vSAN tools
• Perform VxRail RASR factory image upgrade and reset procedures

VxRail Appliance REST API (7%)
• Identify REST API functionality available in VxRail and use VxRail API to perform tasks
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.

Recommended Training
The following curriculum is recommended for candidates preparing to take this exam.
Please complete one of the following courses

Please complete one of the following courses Course Title Course Number Mode Available as of VxRail Appliance 7.0.XXX Concepts ES101CPX02007 On Demand 09/11/2020
Please complete the following course Course Title Course Number Mode Available as of VxRail 7.0.XXX Feature - REST API ES102CPX02009 On Demand 04/23/2021
Please complete one of the following courses Course Title Course Number Mode Available as of VxRail Installation and Implementation ES524CPX00074 Classroom/Virtual Classroom 3/5/2021 VxRail 7.0.XXX Installation and Implementation
ES502CPX02031 On Demand 02/22/2021

Note: These exam description details reflect contents as of June 11, 2021.
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates exams to reflect technical currency and relevance. Please check the Proven Professional website regularly for the latest information.

QUESTION 1
What is a consideration when implementing a custom VDS on a VxRail cluster?

A. Used by multiple clusters managed by a single vCenter instance
B. Supported with external and internal vCenter Servers
C. Supports only four NIC uplinks
D. Supports only two NIC uplinks

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended format for host names when using the VxRail Deployment Wizard for an External vCenter solution?

A. FQDN for vCenter Server Host name for VxRail Manager
B. Host name for both vCenter Server and for VxRail Manager
C. FQDN for both vCenter Server and for VxRail Manager
D. Host name for vCenter Server FQDN for VxRail Manager

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company needs to enable vSphere GPU capabilities on their VxRail cluster. To do so, they need to purchase a specific entitlement.
What licensing satisfies this requirement?

A. vSphere Enterprise Plus
B. vSAN Enterprise Plus Edition
C. vSAN Advanced Edition
D. vSphere Standard

Correct Answer: B

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C1000-018 IBM QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 Fundamental Analysis Exam

 

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 38
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

The test consists of 5 sections containing a total of approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1: Monitor outputs of configured use cases. 15%
Perform dashboard customization.
Review outputs in all available QRadar Tabs (Dashboards, Log Activity, Network Activity, Assets, etc.).
Navigate to, from and within an offense.
Distinguish offenses from triggered rules.
Review security access trends and anomalies.
Review security risks and network vulnerabilities detected by QRadar.
Describe the different types of rules like behavioral, event, flow, common, offense, anomaly and threshold rules.

Section 2: Perform initial investigation of alerts and offenses created by QRadar. 35%
Describe the use of the magnitude of an offense.
Describe the QRadar network hierarchy.
Explain Offense details on offense details view, why/how it was created.
Identify contributing event and or flow information for an offence.
Show offense lifecycle (e.g., Open, Closed, Assigned, Hidden, Protected).
Illustrate the right click function (ie., event filtering, plugins, information, navigate, other).
Break down triggered rules to identify the reason of the offense.
Distinguish potential threats from probable false positives.
Review the vulnerabilities and threat assessment of the hosts that are involved in the offense.
Describe the roles of security devices such as firewall, IDS/IPS, Proxy, Authentication devices, Antivirus software supported by QRadar.
Perform offense management such as assign an offense to a user, close, protect or hide an offense, add notes, send email or mark the offense for follow-up.
Demonstrate how to export Flow/Event data for external analysis.
Summarize the characteristics of the Standard Custom Properties, User-defined Custom Properties and Normalized properties.
Outline Offense Closing Procedures.

Section 3: Identify and escalate undesirable rule behavior to administrator. 20%
Report potential false positives.
Report rule usage and offenses generated by those rules.
Report any abnormal security access trends and events to security admins.
Report threats, risks, or vulnerabilities to network/security admins, based on severity.
Outline simple Offense naming mechanisms.
Interpret rules that test for regular expressions.
Explain relevant test and the test order of the rules.
Illustrate the difference between rule responses and rule actions (e.g. limiter).
Recognize the "special" Building Blocks: Host Definition, Cat Definition, Port Definition.
Describe the usage of the log sources, flow sources, vulnerability scanners, and reference data.
Identify why rules are not being triggered as expected (e.g., dropped from CRE, or local vs global, stateful counters).

Section 4: Extract information for regular or adhoc distribution to consumer of outputs. 17%
Perform searches using filters.
Perform Quick (Lucene) searches.
Perform Advanced (AQL) searches.
Explain the different uses for each search type (ie., filtered, Quick and Advanced).
Intepret a timeseries graph in a dashboard.
Select suitable standard Reports for a situation.
Create and generate scheduled and manual reports.
Share findings about offenses by distributing offense detail via email.
Discuss the content of an event or flow, including the normalized fields.

Section 5: Identify and escalate issues with regards to QRadar health and functionality. 13%
Explain QRadar architecture by summarizing QRadar components (ie., Console, Event Processor, Event Collector, Flow Processor, Data Nodes and Flow Collector, App host).
Interpret common system notifications.
Illustrate the impact of QRadar property indexes.
Distinguish when an event has coalesced information in it.
Illustrate events that are not correctly parsed.
Explain QRadar timestamps (e.g., Log Source Time, Storage time, Start time).
Report any agents or log sources that are not reporting to QRadar on a regular basis.

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: C0003502
Replaces PW Code: 38007401
Status: Live

This entry level certification is intended for security analysts who wish to validate their comprehensive knowledge of IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2.

These security analysts will understand basic networking, basic Security and SIEM and QRadar concepts.
They will also understand how to log in to, navigate within, and explain capabilities of the product using the graphical user interface.

Additionally, they will also be able to identify causes of offenses, and access, interpret, and report security information in a QRadar deployment.

Note: The function of specific apps, apart from the two bundled with the product, is out of scope, but the concept of extending the capability of using apps is in scope.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Basic knowledge of:
SIEM concepts
TCP/IP Networking
IT Security concepts
General IT skills (browser navigation etc...)
internet security attack types additional features that need additional licenses including but not limited to QRadar Vulnerability Manager, QRadar Risk Manager, QRadar Flows, Incident Forensics

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam

Exam Required:
Click on the link below to see exam details, exam objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

C1000-018 - IBM QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 Fundamental Analysis

The test: contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer. is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

QUESTION 1
Which use case type is appropriate for VPN log sources? (Choose two.)

A. Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)
B. Insider Threat
C. Critical Data Protection
D. Securing the Cloud

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
What is displayed in the status bar of the Log Activity tab when streaming events?

A. Average number of results that are received per second.
B. Average number of results that are received per minute.
C. Accumulated number of results that are received per second.
D. Accumulated number of results that are received per minute.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An analyst wants to analyze the long-term trending of data from a search.
Which chart would be used to display this data on a dashboard?

A. Bar Graph
B. Time Series chart
C. Pie Chart
D. Scatter Chart

Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft Azure AZ-500 Exam Best Preparation Tool

 

Aspired to become a Microsoft Certified Azure Security Engineer? Here’s the definitive guide for your AZ-500 exam preparation, follow this and start your preparation for the Azure AZ-500 certification exam.

Microsoft is one of the strongest names in the world of cloud computing. The cloud service platform of Microsoft, Azure, is one of the market leaders in cloud computing along with AWS and Google Cloud. Therefore, the demand for Azure certifications is always high. One of the most recently launched Azure exams is Microsoft Azure AZ 500 that is ideal for the role of Microsoft Azure Security Engineer.

Many sources on the internet help candidates in the AZ-500 exam preparation. However, the following discussion would aim at illustrating every detail of the exam to support your preparation. The discussion can serve as a guiding path for you to start preparation immediately for the Azure Security certification. So, let us get started!

Use this quick start guide to collect all the information about Microsoft Azure Security Technologies (AZ-500) Certification exam. This study guide provides a list of objectives and resources that will help you prepare for items on the AZ-500 Microsoft Azure Security Technologies exam. The Sample Questions will help you identify the type and difficulty level of the questions and the Practice Exams will make you familiar with the format and environment of an exam. You should refer this guide carefully before attempting your actual Microsoft MCA Azure Security Engineer certification exam.

The Microsoft Azure Security Technologies certification is mainly targeted to those candidates who want to build their career in Microsoft Azure domain. The Microsoft Certified - Azure Security Engineer Associate exam verifies that the candidate possesses the fundamental knowledge and proven skills in the area of Microsoft MCA Azure Security Engineer.

Skills measured
The content of this exam will be updated on August 2, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what will be changing.
Manage identity and access (30-35%)
Implement platform protection (15-20%)
Manage security operations (25-30%)
Secure data and applications (20-25%)

Manage identity and access (30-35%)
Manage Azure Active Directory identities
 configure security for service principals
 manage Azure AD directory groups
 manage Azure AD users
 manage administrative units
 configure password writeback
 configure authentication methods including password hash and Pass Through

Authentication (PTA), OAuth, and passwordless
 transfer Azure subscriptions between Azure AD tenants

Configure secure access by using Azure AD
 monitor privileged access for Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
 configure Access Reviews
 configure PIM
 implement Conditional Access policies including Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
 configure Azure AD identity protection

Manage application access
 create App Registration
 configure App Registration permission scopes
 manage App Registration permission consent
 manage API access to Azure subscriptions and resources

Manage access control
 configure subscription and resource permissions
 configure resource group permissions
 configure custom RBAC roles
 identify the appropriate role
    o apply principle of least privilege
 interpret permissions
    o check access

Implement platform protection (15-20%)

Implement advanced network security
 secure the connectivity of virtual networks (VPN authentication, Express Route encryption)
 configure Network Security Groups (NSGs) and Application Security Groups (ASGs)
 create and configure Azure Firewall
 implement Azure Firewall Manager
 configure Azure Front Door service as an Application Gateway
 configure a Web Application Firewall (WAF) on Azure Application Gateway
 configure Azure Bastion
 configure a firewall on a storage account, Azure SQL, Key Vault, or App Service
 implement Service Endpoints
 implement DDoS protection

Configure advanced security for compute
 configure endpoint protection
 configure and monitor system updates for VMs
 configure authentication for Azure Container Registry
 configure security for different types of containers
    o implement vulnerability management
    o configure isolation for AKS
    o configure security for container registry
 implement Azure Disk Encryption
 configure authentication and security for Azure App Service
    o configure SSL/TLS certs
    o configure authentication for Azure Kubernetes Service
    o configure automatic updates

Manage security operations (25-30%)
Monitor security by using Azure Monitor
 create and customize alerts
 monitor security logs by using Azure Monitor
 configure diagnostic logging and log retention

Monitor security by using Azure Security Center
 evaluate vulnerability scans from Azure Security Center
 configure Just in Time VM access by using Azure Security Center
 configure centralized policy management by using Azure Security Center
 configure compliance policies and evaluate for compliance by using Azure Security Center
 configure workflow automation by using Azure Security Center

Monitor security by using Azure Sentinel
 create and customize alerts
 configure data sources to Azure Sentinel
 evaluate results from Azure Sentinel
 configure a playbook by using Azure Sentinel

Configure security policies
 configure security settings by using Azure Policy
 configure security settings by using Azure Blueprint

Secure data and applications (20-25%)

Configure security for storage
 configure access control for storage accounts
 configure key management for storage accounts
 configure Azure AD authentication for Azure Storage
 configure Azure AD Domain Services authentication for Azure Files
 create and manage Shared Access Signatures (SAS)
    o create a shared access policy for a blob or blob container
 configure Storage Service Encryption
 configure Azure Defender for Storage

Configure security for databases
 enable database authentication
 enable database auditing
 configure Azure Defender for SQL
    o configure Azure SQL Database Advanced Threat Protection
 implement database encryption
o implement Azure SQL Database Always Encrypted

Configure and manage Key Vault
 manage access to Key Vault
 manage permissions to secrets, certificates, and keys
    o configure RBAC usage in Azure Key Vault
 manage certificates
 manage secrets
 configure key rotation
 backup and restore of Key Vault items
 configure Azure Defender for Key Vault

The exam guide below shows the changes that will be implemented on August 2, 2021.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam should have subject matter expertise implementing security controls and threat protection, managing identity and access, and protecting data, applications, and networks.
Responsibilities for an Azure Security Engineer include maintaining the security posture, identifying and remediating vulnerabilities by using a variety of security tools, implementing threat protection, and responding to security incident escalations.
Azure Security Engineers often serve as part of a larger team dedicated to cloud-based management and security and may also secure hybrid environments as part of an end-to-end infrastructure.

A candidate for this exam should be familiar with scripting and automation, and should have a deep understanding of networking and virtualization. A candidate should also have a strong familiarity with cloud capabilities, Azure products and services, and other Microsoft products and services.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Manage identity and access (30-35%)

Manage Azure Active Directory identities
 configure security for service principals
 manage Azure AD directory groups
 manage Azure AD users
 manage administrative units
 configure password writeback
 configure authentication methods including password hash and Pass Through

Authentication (PTA), OAuth, and passwordless
 transfer Azure subscriptions between Azure AD tenants

Configure secure access by using Azure AD
 monitor privileged access for Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
 configure Access Reviews
 configure PIM
 implement Conditional Access policies including Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
 configure Azure AD identity protection

Manage application access
 create App Registration
 configure App Registration permission scopes
 manage App Registration permission consent
 manage API access to Azure subscriptions and resources

Manage access control
 configure subscription and resource permissions
 configure resource group permissions
 configure custom RBAC roles
 identify the appropriate role
o apply principle of least privilege
 interpret permissions
o check access

Implement platform protection (15-20%)
Implement advanced network security
 secure the connectivity of virtual networks (VPN authentication, Express Route encryption)
 configure Network Security Groups (NSGs) and Application Security Groups (ASGs)
 create and configure Azure Firewall
 implement Azure Firewall Manager
 configure Azure Front Door service as an Application Gateway
 configure a Web Application Firewall (WAF) on Azure Application Gateway
 configure Azure Bastion
 configure a firewall on a storage account, Azure SQL, Key Vault, or App Service
 implement Service Endpoints
 implement DDoS protection

Configure advanced security for compute
 configure endpoint protection
 configure and monitor system updates for VMs
 configure authentication for Azure Container Registry
 configure security for different types of containers
o implement vulnerability management
o configure isolation for AKS
o configure security for container registry
 implement Azure Disk Encryption
 configure authentication and security for Azure App Service
o configure SSL/TLS certs
o configure authentication for Azure Kubernetes Service
o configure automatic updates

Manage security operations (25-30%)
Monitor security by using Azure Monitor
 create and customize alerts
 monitor security logs by using Azure Monitor
 configure diagnostic logging and log retention

Monitor security by using Azure Security Center
 evaluate vulnerability scans from Azure Security Center
 configure Just in Time VM access by using Azure Security Center
 configure centralized policy management by using Azure Security Center
 configure compliance policies and evaluate for compliance by using Azure Security Center
 configure workflow automation by using Azure Security Center

Monitor security by using Azure Sentinel
 create and customize alerts
 configure data sources to Azure Sentinel
 evaluate results from Azure Sentinel
 configure a playbook by using Azure Sentinel

Configure security policies
 configure security settings by using Azure Policy
 configure security settings by using Azure Blueprint

Secure data and applications (20-25%)

Configure security for storage
 configure access control for storage accounts
 configure key management for storage accounts
 configure Azure AD authentication for Azure Storage
 configure Azure AD Domain Services authentication for Azure Files
 create and manage Shared Access Signatures (SAS)
o create a shared access policy for a blob or blob container
 configure Storage Service Encryption
 configure Azure Defender for Storage

Configure security for databases
 enable database authentication
 enable database auditing
 configure Azure Defender for SQL
o configure Azure SQL Database Advanced Threat Protection
 implement database encryption
o implement Azure SQL Database Always Encrypted

Configure and manage Key Vault
 manage access to Key Vault
 manage permissions to secrets, certificates, and keys
o configure RBAC usage in Azure Key Vault
 manage certificates
 manage secrets
 configure key rotation
 backup and restore of Key Vault items
 configure Azure Defender for Key Vault

QUESTION 1
You need to meet the identity and access requirements for Group1.
What should you do?

A. Add a membership rule to Group1.
B. Delete Group1. Create a new group named Group1 that has a group type of Microsoft 365. Add users and devices to the group.
C. Modify the membership rule of Group1.
D. Change the membership type of Group1 to Assigned. Create two groups that have dynamic memberships. Add the new groups to Group1.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: You can create a dynamic group for devices or for users, but you can't create a rule that contains both users and devices.
D: For assigned group you can only add individual members.

QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that User2 can implement PIM.
What should you do first?

A. Assign User2 the Global administrator role.
B. Configure authentication methods for contoso.com.
C. Configure the identity secure score for contoso.com.
D. Enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) for User2.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To start using PIM in your directory, you must first enable PIM.
1. Sign in to the Azure portal as a Global Administrator of your directory.
You must be a Global Administrator with an organizational account (for example, @yourdomain.com), not a Microsoft account (for example, @outlook.com), to enable PIM for a directory.
Scenario: Technical requirements include: Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM) for contoso.com

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that you can meet the security operations requirements. What should you do first?

A. Turn on Auto Provisioning in Security Center.
B. Integrate Security Center and Microsoft Cloud App Security.
C. Upgrade the pricing tier of Security Center to Standard.
D. Modify the Security Center workspace configuration.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Standard tier extends the capabilities of the Free tier to workloads running in private and other public clouds, providing unified security management and threat protection across your hybrid cloud workloads.
The Standard tier also adds advanced threat detection capabilities, which uses built-in behavioral analytics and machine learning to identify attacks and zero-days exploits, access and application controls to reduce exposure to network attacks and malware, and more.
Scenario: Security Operations Requirements
Litware must be able to customize the operating system security configurations in Azure Security Center.

QUESTION 4
You need to configure WebApp1 to meet the data and application requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Upload a public certificate.
B. Turn on the HTTPS Only protocol setting.
C. Set the Minimum TLS Version protocol setting to 1.2.
D. Change the pricing tier of the App Service plan.
E. Turn on the Incoming client certificates protocol setting.

Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: To configure Certificates for use in Azure Websites Applications you need to upload a public Certificate.
C: Over time, multiple versions of TLS have been released to mitigate different vulnerabilities. TLS 1.2 is the most current version available for apps running on Azure App Service.

Incorrect Answers:
B: We need support the http url as well.

QUESTION 5
SIMULATION
You need to ensure that when administrators deploy resources by using an Azure Resource Manager template, the deployment can access secrets in an Azure key vault named KV11597200.
To complete this task, sign in to the Azure portal.
Correct Answer: See the explanation below.

Section: (none)

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You need to configure an option in the Advanced Access Policy of the key vault.
1. In the Azure portal, type Azure Key Vault in the search box, select Azure Key Vault from the search results then select the key vault named KV11597200. Alternatively, browse to Azure Key Vault in the left navigation pane.
2. In the properties of the key vault, click on Advanced Access Policies.
3. Tick the checkbox labelled Enable access to Azure Resource Manager for template deployment.
4. Click Save to save the changes.

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PK0-004 CompTIA Project+ Exam

 

CompTIA Project+ gives business professionals – inside and outside of IT – the basic concepts to successfully manage small- to medium-sized projects.

Why is it different?

CompTIA Project+ is ideal for professionals who need to manage smaller, less complex projects as part of their other job duties but still have foundational project management skills. Project+ is more versatile than other certifications because it covers essential project management concepts beyond the scope of just one methodology or framework.

About the exam
The CompTIA Project+ examination is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-sized projects. The successful candidate will have the knowledge and skills required to:

Manage the project life cycle
Ensure appropriate communication
Manage resources and stakeholders
Maintain project documentation

Exam Details
Exam Codes PK0-004
Exam Description CompTIA Project+ is designed for business professionals who coordinate or manage small-to-medium-size projects, inside and outside of IT. The exam certifies the knowledge and skills required to manage the project life cycle, ensure appropriate, communication, manage resources, manage stakeholders, and maintain project documentation.
Number of Questions Maximum of 95 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response), and drag and drops
Length of Test 90 Minutes
Passing Score 710 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience At least 12 months of cumulative project management experience or equivalent education
Launch Date March 15 2017
Retirement N/A
Languages English, Japanese
Testing Provider Pearson VUE
Testing Centers Online Testing

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE
PROJECT BASICS

Summarize the properties of project, phases, schedules, roles and responsibilities, and cost controls, as well as identifying the basic aspects of Agile methodology
WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
PROJECT CONSTRAINTS

Predict the impact of various constraint variables and influences throughout the project and explain the importance of risk strategies and activities
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
COMMUNICATION & CHANGE MANAGEMENT

Understand appropriate communication methods of influence and use change control processes within the context of a project
NETWORKING
PROJECT TOOLS & DOCUMENTATION

Compare and contrast various project management tools and analyze project and partner-centric documentation

Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed from the ground up to help you learn and master the material in your certification exam. Trust self-paced CompTIA study guides that are

Clearly written and structured.
Flexible so you can learn at any pace.
Focused on your exam success.

Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options such as:

QUESTION 1
A project manager is attempting to establish the proper sequencing and duration of project activities.
Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial?

A. Network diagram
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. WBS
D. Gantt chart

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are characteristics of a project? (Choose two.)

A. Ongoing
B. Temporary
C. Start and finish
D. Achieving a goal
E. Consisting of milestones
F. Restricting the budget

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A company has determined it does not have the in-house capability to perform a project and wants to procure third-party services.
Which of the following documents will the company MOST likely release FIRST?

A. RFO
B. RFI
C. RFP
D. RFQ

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The project manager was asked to provide recommendations for the removal of a vendor. A meeting was
scheduled with the key stakeholders and the project sponsor to highlight the reasons for this recommendation.
Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting to support this recommendation?
(Choose two.)

A. The issue log to show why the vendor should be replaced.
B. The team action items to show why the vendor should be replaced.
C. The scope statement to show why the vendor should be replaced.
D. A procurement plan to show why the vendor should be replaced.
E. A change management plan to have the vendor replaced.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
A project manager is creating the WBS.
In which of the following phases is the project?

A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a characteristics of a matrix organization?

A. Authority lies solely with the project manager.
B. Authority is directed by the project architect.
C. Authority is shared between the project manager and project coordinator.
D. Authority is shared between functional and project managers.

Correct Answer: D

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PT1-002 CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam

 

CompTIA PenTest+ is for cybersecurity professionals tasked with penetration testing and vulnerability management.

Why is it different?
CompTIA PenTest+ is the only penetration testing exam taken at a Pearson VUE testing center with both hands-on, performance-based questions and multiple-choice, to ensure each candidate possesses the skills, knowledge, and ability to perform tasks on systems. PenTest+ exam also includes management skills used to plan, scope, and manage weaknesses, not just exploit them.

PenTest+ is unique because our certification requires a candidate to demonstrate the hands-on ability and knowledge to test devices in new environments such as the cloud and mobile, in addition to traditional desktops and servers.

About the exam
The new PenTest+ (PT0-002) exam will launch October, 2021!

Beta exam registration available on April 13, 2021. Interested in taking the beta exam? Registration on the Pearson VUE site.

CompTIA PenTest+ assesses the most up-to-date penetration testing, and vulnerability assessment and management skills necessary to determine the resiliency of the network against attacks.
Successful candidates will have the intermediate skills required to customize assessment frameworks to effectively collaborate on and report findings.
Candidates will also have the best practices to communicate recommended strategies to improve the overall state of IT security.

CompTIA PenTest+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US DoD to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. Regulators and government rely on ANSI accreditation, because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited program. Over 2.3 million CompTIA ISO/ANSI-accredited exams have been delivered since January 1, 2011.

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE
PLANNING & SCOPING

Explain the importance of planning and key aspects of compliance-based assessments
WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
INFORMATION GATHERING &
VULNERABILITY IDENTIFICATION

Gather information to prepare for exploitation then perform a vulnerability scan and analyze results.
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
ATTACKS & EXPLOITS

Exploit network, wireless, application, and RF-based vulnerabilities, summarize physical security attacks, and perform post-exploitation techniques
NETWORKING
PENETRATION TESTING TOOLS

Conduct information gathering exercises with various tools and analyze output and basic scripts (limited to: Bash, Python, Ruby, PowerShell)
HARDWARE & NETWORK TROUBLESHOOTING
REPORTING & COMMUNICATION

Utilize report writing and handling best practices explaining recommended mitigation strategies for discovered vulnerabilities
obs that use CompTIA PenTest+
Penetration Tester
Vulnerability Tester
Security Analyst (II)
Vulnerability Assessment Analyst
Network Security Operations
Application Security Vulnerability

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA PenTest+ certification is good for three years from the date of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA PenTest+ certification. Collect at least 60 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account, and your CompTIA PenTest+ certification will automatically renew.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following should a penetration tester consider FIRST when engaging in a penetration test in a cloud environment?

A. Whether the cloud service provider allows the penetration tester to test the environment
B. Whether the specific cloud services are being used by the application
C. The geographical location where the cloud services are running
D. Whether the country where the cloud service is based has any impeding laws

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A penetration tester who is conducting a web-application test discovers a clickjacking vulnerability associated
with a login page to financial data. Which of the following should the tester do with this information to make this a successful exploit?

A. Perform XSS.
B. Conduct a watering-hole attack.
C. Use BeEF.
D. Use browser autopwn.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company that requires minimal disruption to its daily activities needs a penetration tester to perform
information gathering around the company’s web presence. Which of the following would the tester find MOST
helpful in the initial information-gathering steps? (Choose two.)

A. IP addresses and subdomains
B. Zone transfers
C. DNS forward and reverse lookups
D. Internet search engines
E. Externally facing open ports
F. Shodan results

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester discovers that a web server within the scope of the engagement has already been
compromised with a backdoor. Which of the following should the penetration tester do NEXT?

A. Forensically acquire the backdoor Trojan and perform attribution
B. Utilize the backdoor in support of the engagement
C. Continue the engagement and include the backdoor finding in the final report
D. Inform the customer immediately about the backdoor

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are the MOST important items to include in the final report for a penetration test? (Choose two.)

A. The CVSS score of the finding
B. The network location of the vulnerable device
C. The vulnerability identifier
D. The client acceptance form
E. The name of the person who found the flaw
F. The tool used to find the issue

Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 6
A penetration tester who is performing a physical assessment of a company’s security practices notices the
company does not have any shredders inside the office building. Which of the following techniques would be
BEST to use to gain confidential information?

A. Badge cloning
B. Dumpster diving
C. Tailgating
D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A penetration tester conducted an assessment on a web server. The logs from this session show the
following:
http://www.thecompanydomain.com/servicestatus.php?serviceID=892&serviceID=892 ‘ ;
DROP TABLE SERVICES; --
Which of the following attacks is being attempted?

A. Clickjacking
B. Session hijacking
C. Parameter pollution
D. Cookie hijacking
E. Cross-site scripting

Correct Answer: C

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GCP-GC-ADM Genesys Cloud Certified Professional - Contact Center Administration Exam

 

The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional - Contact Center Admin exam introduces the fundamental concepts and major components associated with the Contact Center feature set of the Genesys Cloud platform.

This exam provides an overview of the Genesys Cloud interface and presents scenarios to facilitate your understanding of the administration of a contact center. You will also gain familiarity with daily contact center monitoring and administration tasks.

Note: The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional (GCP-GC) certification is obtained by completing the following three exams (Contact Center Administration, Implementation, and Reporting & Analytics). The prerequisite for GCP-GC is the Genesys Cloud Certified Associate (GCA-GC) certification.

Target Audience
The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional - Contact Center Admin exam is intended for system administrators, contact center managers, project managers, and supervisors to help them monitor and administer the contact center. The exam is also useful for anyone else who needs to learn the basic functionality of Genesys Cloud Contact Center.

Course Objectives
Genesys Cloud Collaborate
Basic overview of the Genesys Cloud Platform and Administration
Overview of Genesys Cloud Collaborate
List the features of Genesys Cloud Contact Center
List the three levels of Contact Center licensing
Configure Automatic Call Distribution to optimize customer service
Describe ACD processing
Explain interaction flow and queue design
Evaluation and routing combination
Configure agent utilization
Configure ACD Skills and Language Skills
Configure wrap-up codes
Configure After Call Work
Activate and deactivate agents on queues
Test ACD call routing
Configure ACD email in Admin settings
Test ACD email routing
Describe ACD Messages
Purpose and capabilities of Genesys Cloud Architect
Features of Genesys Cloud Architect
Describe the options for Inbound
Describe how to create and edit System and User Prompts
Genesys Cloud Data Actions Integration
Describe the function and purpose of the Genesys Cloud data actions Integration
Scripting in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Describe Scripts and basic script functionality
Genesys Cloud Outbound Dialing
Describe the Outbound Dialing modes
Explain the use of Contact Lists
Configure and test an Outbound Power Dialing campaign
Use of Reports and Dynamic Views
List the main types of reports and describe their use
List the main Dynamic Views and describe their use
Configure and run an Interaction Details report
Quality Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Quality Policies Overview
Describe how to enable call recording on a Trunk
Create a recording policy
Create and publish an Evaluation form
Quality Evaluator and Quality Administrator dashboards
Workforce Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Workforce Management Overview
Working with Schedules
Benefits of scheduling agents
Create a manual schedule

QUESTION 1
A Queue is configured for Standard ACD routing and Disregard skills, next agent for the Evaluation Method.
What agent property is used to determine the next available agent?

A. Skill
B. Time since they last handled an ACD interaction
C. Cost
D. Department

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which definition matches the After Call Work option Mandatory, Time-boxed?

A. The agent may or may not complete after call work. The system will set them to Available after an interaction completes.
They are responsible for setting their availability appropriately if performing After Call Work.

B. The agent is automatically placed into an After Call Work status and the system will automatically set them to Available when the After Call Timeout is reached.
The agent may set themselves to Available if they complete their After Call Work early.

C. The agent is automatically placed into an After Call Work status and the system will automatically set them to Available when the After Call Timeout is reached.
The agent may not set themselves to Available if they complete their After Call Work early.

D. The agent is placed in an After Call Work status and must manually set their status back to available when their after call work is complete.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Currently, you manage all agents’ schedules by using a spreadsheet. This shows when each agent is working
when they are on breaks, and when they have meetings or other events that take them away from the queue.
You would like to be able to schedule agents in an easier and more automated way. What Genesys Cloud
Contact Center feature can you use to replace and automate the spreadsheet schedule?

A. Workforce Management
B. Workflow Process Automation
C. Genesys Cloud Architect
D. Genesys Cloud Reporting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Select all the roles that are automatically assigned by default to the user who sets up the organization.
(Choose two.)

A. Employee
B. Master Admin
C. Genesys Cloud User
D. Admin
E. Telephony Admin

Correct Answer: AD

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(220-1001) CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Study Guide

 

Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed from the ground up to help you learn and master the material in your certification exam. Trust self-paced CompTIA study guides that are
Clearly written and structured.
Flexible so you can learn at any pace.
Focused on your exam success.

Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options such as:

Learn online with CertMaster Learn.
Apply your knowledge with CertMaster Labs
Practice and prepare for your exam with CertMaster Practice.

How Much Does the CompTIA A+ Certification Cost?
It's a simple question, but there can be multiple answers based on your situation and the options you choose. You will need two vouchers to pass two exams to certify.

You may qualify for discounts that can decrease the cost, and you may want to consider additional learning and training that can change the bottom line as well. Read on to find out more.

The Basics: CompTIA A+ Exam Voucher Only
In order to take the certification test, you’ll need to buy an exam voucher. A voucher represents a unique code that you can buy at the CompTIA Store and use to take your test at a Pearson VUE testing center. If a voucher is all you need, then the cost is $232 per exam. Find more details about the exam on the CompTIA A+ product page and information on how to buy a voucher on our testing pages. If you’re ready to buy, head over to the store.

If you don’t pass an exam, you’ll need to purchase another voucher to take another test. We recommend that you go into your exam well-prepared to minimize the chance of not passing the test and having to purchase an additional voucher. Read on to find out about training and test preparation options.

Training and Exam Preparation
Our CompTIA Learning and Training offering is a set of comprehensive learning resources to support our certifications like CompTIA A+. This suite of products includes books, eLearning, labs and exam prep software and is developed in house by CompTIA, based on feedback we hear from learners like you. These resources provide you with a variety of ways to acquire all or some of the knowledge that is outlined in the CompTIA A+ exam objectives.

Self-Study
The self-study guide will teach you the fundamental principles of installing, configuring and troubleshooting PC, mobile, printer and networking device hardware and help you to advance a career in PC support. It will prepare you to take the CompTIA A+ exam by providing 100 percent coverage of the objectives and content examples listed on the syllabus. Browse our store or visit the Official CompTIA A+ Study Guide page to learn more.

Another great way to get an idea of what questions you can expect is to download a set of practice questions. Keep in mind that these practice questions are not the exact questions that will be on the actual test and that there will be different kinds of questions.

Self-Study and Test Preparation
The CompTIA CertMaster suite of products helps candidates learn the skills needed for a career in technology, and to prepare for their exam with confidence.

The following CertMaster products are now available for CompTIA A+:
CertMaster Practice for CompTIA A+
CertMaster Labs for CompTIA A+

* CompTIA A+ certification consists of 2 separate exams, 220-901 and 220-902 or 220-1001 and 220-1002. In order to take both exams, you need to purchase 2 vouchers. Vouchers can be used for any of the exams.

Don't see a bundle you like, click here to see all our bundle offers. Shown prices apply to US store only. Prices in other regions may vary.

Classroom training
For some, self-study isn’t the way to go, and classroom training is either available to them or simply the better choice for them to learn. CompTIA A+ certification training is offered by many public academic institutions, such as colleges, as well as private academic institutions such as professional training centers.

The cost of classroom training depends on your choice and can range from a few hundred to several thousands of dollars. You can find classroom training in your area on our classroom training page. For organizations looking for instructor-led training, CompTIA offers classroom training for organizations.

Free and Almost Free CompTIA A+ Certification (Seriously!)

Depending on where you live and what sponsorships you qualify for, special programs may be available to help you get trained and certified for free (or nearly free). Such programs are usually geared toward one or more of the following groups:

Unemployed or under-employed individuals
Displaced workers
Military veterans
Ethnic minorities
Women

Typically, such free training programs fall into one of two categories: government-sponsored programs and nonprofit charitable programs.
Government-Sponsored IT Training

These are programs that are typically funded with federal dollars and advertised through your county’s workforce investment board or your local American Jobs Center. To search for local training programs, go to Career One Stop.

Nonprofit Charitable Programs
These programs are scattered throughout the United States and may be a bit harder to locate. Here are a few on our radar (and if you learn of others, please let us know):

Per Scholas: Locations in New York City, National Capital Region, Cincinnati, Columbus, Atlanta and Dallas.
IT-Ready from Creating IT Futures: Locations in Minneapolis-St. Paul and varying cities. Visit the location page for a list of current training sites that are accepting applications.
Stride Center: Located in the San Francisco Bay Area.
Tech901: Located exclusively in Memphis.

Because these programs typically exist to prepare people for entry-level IT jobs (such as help desk and technical support) they typically reject applicants who already have such a job and are just looking to add a certification to their resume.

As you can imagine, competition for such programs is often fierce. But, if you live in one of the areas where free training is offered and fall into a group that such programs are trying to help, it may be worth applying
Available Student Discount

If you are a student in the United States and have a valid student ID and .edu email address, you can take advantage of CompTIA's student discounts. Certification vouchers and training materials are offered at considerable discounts at the CompTIA Academic Marketplace. At this time, a single CompTIA A+ certification voucher is offered to students for $97.

QUESTION 1
A technician is troubleshooting what appears to be a RAM issue on a PC. Which of the following symptoms would indicate if this is a RAM issue?

A. POST code beeps
B. Distended capacitors
C. Continuous reboots
D. Wrong BIOS time

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A business owner wants to provide security to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate LAN resources, and allow for a variety of other removable hardware.
Which of the following devices would BEST meet the owner’s needs?

A. Docking station
B. Port replicator
C. Thunderbolt
D. USB hub
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A client brings in a smartphone with a cracked screen to be repaired. During the repair process, the technician
places the screws in a small container to prevent losing them. The technician tests the replacement screen to
ensure it works property before closing the device. Once the device is back together, however it does not power on.

A. Label the locations of the screws.
B. Refer to manufacturer resources.
C. Document the orientation of the cables.
D. Use the appropriate hand tools.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A company requires an internal network device that can assign network addresses and configure the next hop for network hosts. Which of the following network protocols must this device provide?

A. DNS
B. SMTP
C. DHCP
D. SNMP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A computer has a static address configured and is able to connect to resource on the same VLAN but is
unable to access resources on other VLANs. Which of the following should be configured to allow this communication?

A. Hub
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Access point
E. Repeater

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A device has an IP address of fe80:2efa:57a2::35a7. Which of the following BEST describe this address?
(Choose two.)

A. Link local
B. Broadcast
C. Multicast
D. IPv4
E. IPv6
F. APIPA

Correct Answer: AE
 

Click here to view complete Q&A of 220-1001 exam
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