CompTIA A+ Certification validates the latest skills needed by today’s computer support professionals. CompTIA A+ confirms a technician's ability to perform tasks such as installation, configuration, diagnosing, preventive maintenance and basic networking. and more at http://certkingdom.com
Number of questions: 63
Number of questions to pass: 38
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This exam is intended for IBM Spectrum Virtualize V8.3.1 administrators who are
familiar with the product features and capabilities. The administrator can plan
an installation, perform the installation, upgrade or expand an existing system,
manage daily operations, and monitor performance and system operation.
IBM Spectrum Virtualize V8.3.1 Administrator 100%
Section 1: Planning 1.1 Determine the customer’s environment for Spectrum Virtualize.
1.2 Verify limitations and restrictions
1.3 Perform performance modeling using Storage Modeller (StorM)
1.4 Determine type of storage system connectivity being externally virtualized
1.5 Evaluate data reduction use and capabilities within an organization’s
storage infrastructure.
1.6 Describe IBM Spectrum Virtualize clustering capabilities.
1.7 Configure storage for IBM Power iSeries
1.8 Verify the pre-sale and pre-install checklist (Impact) Technical Delivery
Assessment (TDA)
Section 2: Implementation 2.1 Perform basic configuration and setup.
2.2 Configure Network Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
2.3 Ensure an organization’s security requirements will be satisfied by
encryption enablement.
2.4 Externally virtualize storage
2.5 Administer storage pools.
2.6 Administer arrays
2.7 Enable/disable Volume protection mode-by pool
2.8 Administer volumes
2.9 Set up host.
Section 3: Manage and Use IBM Spectrum Virtualize 3.1 Enable Quality of Service (QOS) capabilities.
3.2 Administer the multi-tenancy function
3.3 Enable and monitor Easy Tier
3.4 Integrate with VMware
3.5 Migrate volumes
3.6 Perform code upgrades
3.7 Describe process for node replacement
3.8 Perform Storage management and performance monitoring (Virtual Storage
Center)
3.9 Describe the process for implementing IBM Spectrum Virtualize for Public
Cloud.
Section 4: Copy Services: FlashCopy 4.1 Describe use cases for snapshots, clones, backups including consistency
groups
4.2 Manage snapshots, clones, backups, and consistency groups
4.3 Describe Transparent Cloud Tiering - encryption and compression
Section 5: Copy Services-Replication 5.1 Determine high availability options including stretched cluster,
Hyperswap, spare node
5.2 Calculate bandwidth requirements for replication
5.3 Determine replication connectivity - ip, FCIP, Fibre Channel, compression
5.4 Describe copy services methods and capabilities available for replication
and availability solution options.
5.5 Manage metro-mirror, global mirror, global mirror with change volume
including consistency groups; Sync rates
5.6 Implement disaster recovery to public cloud (IBM Spectrum Virtualize for
Public Cloud)
This exam tests your knowledge of implementing security automated
solutions, including: Programming concepts
RESTful APIs
Data models
Protocols
Firewalls
Web
DNS
Cloud and email security
ISE
Exam Description The Automating and Programming Cisco Security Solutions v1.0 (SAUTO 300-735)
exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified
DevNet Professional, and Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist - Security Automation
and Programmability certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of
implementing Security automated solutions, including programming concepts,
RESTful APIs, data models, protocols, firewalls, web, DNS, cloud and email
security, and ISE. The course, Implementing Cisco Security Automation Solutions,
helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.1 Utilize common version control operations with git (add, clone, push,
commit, diff, branching, and merging conflict)
1.2 Describe characteristics of API styles (REST and RPC)
1.3 Describe the challenges encountered and patterns used when consuming APIs
synchronously and asynchronously
1.4 Interpret Python scripts containing data types, functions, classes,
conditions, and looping
1.5 Describe the benefits of Python virtual environments
1.6 Explain the benefits of using network configuration tools such as Ansible
and Puppet for automating security platforms
2.1 Describe the event streaming capabilities of Firepower Management Center
eStreamer API
2.2 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
2.2.a Firepower (Firepower Management Center and Firepower Device Management)
2.2.b ISE
2.2.c pxGRID
2.2.d Stealthwatch Enterprise
2.3 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies
using Firepower Management Center API
2.4 Implement firewall objects, rules, intrusion policies, and access policies
using Firepower Threat Defense API (also known as Firepower Device Manager API)
2.5 Construct a Python script for pxGrid to retrieve information such as
endpoint device type, network policy and security telemetry
2.6 Construct API requests using Stealthwatch API
2.6.a perform configuration modifications
2.6.b generate rich reports
3.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
3.1.a Umbrella Investigate APIs
3.1.b AMP for endpoints APIs
3.1.c ThreatGRID API
3.2 Construct an Umbrella Investigate API request
3.3 Construct AMP for endpoints API requests for event, computer, and policies
3.4 Construct ThreatGRID APIs request for search, sample feeds, IoC feeds, and
threat disposition
4.1 Describe the capabilities and components of these APIs
4.1.a Umbrella reporting and enforcement APIs
4.1.b Stealthwatch cloud APIs
4.1.c Cisco Security Management Appliance APIs
4.2 Construct Stealthwatch cloud API request for reporting
4.3 Construct an Umbrella Reporting and Enforcement API request
4.4 Construct a report using Cisco Security Management Appliance API request
(email and web)
QUESTION 1 Which of the following is typically used to manage a Cisco router in-band?
(Select the best answer.)
A. a VTY port
B. a serial port
C. a console port
D. an auxiliary port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following enables the validation of both user and device
credentials in a single EAP transaction? (Select the best answer.)
A. PEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-FAST with EAP chaining
D. EAP-MD5
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which of the following features protects the control plane by classifying
traffic into three separate control plane subinterfaces? (Select the best
answer.)
A. CoPP
B. CPPr
C. RBAC
D. uRPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is an outputspreading technique that spammers use to
manipulate reputation scores and defeat filters? (Select the best answer.)
A. phishing
B. snowshoe spam
C. waterfalling
D. listwashing
Why Passing ITILFND V4 Exam to Earn ITIL 4 Foundation Certification Is Now
Easier with Certkingdom.com
Are you preparing for your ITIL ITILFND V4 exam? Are you wondering how to go
about it successfully? With top of the range exam preparation resources
available online, you need not worry anymore about not getting the right exam
study resources.
We’re going to show why it’s now easier than ever for you to prepare and pass
your exam. First of all, let’s take a quick look at this important
Certkingdom.com ITIL exam. The ITIL Foundation V4 exam was launched by AXELOS,
the official ITIL exam vendor, at the end February 2019. Passing this exam leads
to the ITIL 4 Foundation certification. Next, let’s discuss more details of the
exam and how you can pass it while using revision materials from Certkingdom.com.
ITIL V4 Certifications ITIL V4 comprises four levels of certifications. They are Foundation, ITIL 4
Managing Professional, ITIL 4 Strategic Leader, and Master. This ITIL 4
credential scheme has been aligned with the objectives of the ITIL V3. The
intention is to ensure that practitioners proceed smoothly with their journey in
ITIL.
ITILFND V4 Exam Skills Measured There are some skills that you have to master in order to pass your exam.
They include:
Understanding key service management concepts
Understanding ITIL’S guiding principles and how they can help organizations in
adopting and adapting service management
Understanding the four dimensions involved in service management
Understanding ITIL’s service value system, its purpose, as well as components
Understanding the service value chain activities and their interconnection
Knowing the key terms and purpose of the ITIL practices
ITILFND V4 Exam Overview Exam Name: ITIL 4 Foundation
Exam Code: ITILFND V4
Question Types and Structure: Multiple-choice.
Number of Questions: 40
Duration: 60 minutes
Material Allowed: None (It’s a closed book exam)
Pass Mark: 26/40 (65%)
Why Pass the ITILFND V4 Exam? There are various reasons to pursue and pass your ITIL exam. Some of them
include:
You earn a certification that determines your next career level.
Earning your credential boosts your confidence and encourages you to go for even
bigger goals.
As you prepare for your exam, you’ll gain expert skills that make you effective
in delivering business value. You get to master major concepts in Agile, Lean
and DevOps, which are crucial for the success of every business enterprise.
It’s a great way to demonstrate that you understand the ITILFND V4 exam
objectives and can perform your duties effectively.
Getting a job with your ITIL Foundation certification becomes easier than
before.
Expert skills mean better pay for you.
How to Pass the ITILFND V4 Exam?
One of the first steps to preparing for any test successfully is to understand
what that specific exam is all about. Ensure that you get to understand the
syllabus for this ITILFND V4 exam as this will determine whether or not you pass
your exam.
Once you have checked out the syllabus, the next thing for you to do is to find
the resources that will help you gain the required skills and knowledge. There
are study resources that have been designed to specifically aid you in revising
for your ITILFND V4 exam. They include the following:
Training courses You can choose to take classroom training or opt for distance learning.
AXELOS provides you with training through their accredited training partners.
Courses will provide you with a deeper understanding of the exam and its
objectives.
ITILFND V4 Practice Questions Another great way to prepare for your ITIL Foundation V4 exam is self-study
by using past questions and answers. This approach will be advantageous to you
as you’ll learn more about the exam and how to pass it. Certkingdom.com.com has
some of the best questions and answers also known as practice tests. This exam
prep site is reliable and offers you up-to-date revision materials. What’s more,
it makes it easier for you to pass your exam the first time you take it. This is
definitely a guaranteed method!
Books for Exam Revision
Whether you’re a seasoned professional or are new to IT Service Management,
studying with books will give you an advantage. One of the study guides is the
ITIL Foundation, ITIL 4th Edition. This is a helpful guide for your exam. It
digs deeper into the ITIL Service Management, and can also act as a guide that
you can use at work or for further studies. Your revision should go beyond just
passing your exam.
Passing your test doesn’t involve knowing the syllabus or getting the right
study resources only. You must also organise your time in such a way that you’ll
be able to cover all the required exam topics in good time. Another way to pass
your test is to be committed to the whole revision process. When the exam time
comes, ensure that you’re in the testing center on time. Don’t forget to read
through the questions carefully while ensuring that you understand each one of
them before selecting your final answer.
Final Thoughts Preparation materials are an important aspect of every test. Settling on the
right ones is what will determine your performance. There’s no better way to
pass your ITIL ITILFND V4 exam than picking and using the best study resources
like training courses, Certkingdom.com practice tests, and study guides. It’s
true that all these revision materials are making it easier for you to study and
pass your exam!
QUESTION 1
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and
events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge
management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to
operate a new service be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to
proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since
it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Course Description The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the most widely accepted approach to
IT service management in the world. ITIL is a best practice framework that has
been drawn from both the public and private sectors internationally. It
describes how IT resources should be organized to deliver business value,
documenting the processes, functions and roles of IT Service Management (ITSM).
The focus of a business should move from simply managing the company’s IT to
making IT truly productive by helping the business achieve its strategic goals.
ITIL certification helps organizations fulfill this goal by providing guidelines
for establishing governance standards and enhancing the alignment between
business and its IT processes.
Audience: ITIL certification is most suited for IT Managers, System Analysts,
Quality Analysts, System Administrators, Operations Managers, and Database
Administrators.
Course Objectives Understand and implement IT Service Management best practices, key concepts,
principles, and process models required for clearing the ITIL Foundation
certification exam
Gain understanding of scope, purpose, and objective of, service strategy,
service transition, service design, service operations, and Continual Service
Improvement
Apply ITIL concepts, tools and techniques to improve effectiveness and
efficiency of business for optimizing customer experience
Learn to automate standard tasks and apply lean principles to enhance efficiency
of IT Service Management processes in this ITIL 2011 foundation training
Centralize processes and teams and save costs using well defined fit-for-use and
fit-for purpose processes
ITIL Foundation course provides participants a complete structure with a set of
procedures to help them take a proactive approach in improving business
performance with the help of IT.
ITIL Foundation Definition: ITIL Foundation is a certification based on ITIL practices for IT Service
Management. The Foundation certification aims to give professionals an
understanding of the guidelines and framework.
Context: Overview ITIL Foundation is designed to give professionals a basic understanding of
the ITIL framework. It focuses on awareness and comprehension rather than being
able to apply ITIL principles. The basics of IT Service Management as a practice
are covered as is the ITIL lifecycle.
Topics Some of the topics covered in ITIL Foundation include:
IT Service Management as a practice
ITIL Service Cycle
Technology and architecture
Competence and training
The certification also covers processes, models, functions, and roles. The
learning objectives focus on knowing and understanding key terms and
definitions.
To become certified for ITIL Foundation, a professional needs to sit the ITIL
Foundation exam which consists of 40 multiple choice questions. A certificate is
awarded when the professional correctly answers 65% of the questions. The exam
can be done as a conclusion to classroom training or it can be prepared for
through self-study.
Related Certifications: There are many ways to further extend your contextual knowledge of IT
Service Management to broaden your understanding. One of these ways is to build
on your ITIL knowledge with a VeriSM™ certification. The VeriSM™ Plus module
offers professionals knowledge of new and emerging technologies. This
certification ensures that professionals have a grasp of the progessive
practices and innovative technologies that are now emerging rapidly as a
consequence of digital transformation.
QUESTION 1
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and
tools when improving services?
A. Progress iteratively with feedback
B. Keep is simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been
properly assessed?
A. Service configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service level management
D. Change control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a
standard change?
A. Each time the standard change is implemented
B. When the procedure for the standard change is created
C. At least once a year
D. When an emergency change is requested
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?
A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change
quickly
B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure
they can be implemented quickly
C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and
implementation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication
of service requests and incidents?
A. Supplier management
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Relationship management
ISACA’s Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC)
certification indicates expertise in identifying and managing enterprise IT risk
and implementing and maintaining information systems controls. Gain instant
recognition and credibility with CRISC and boost your career!
THE CRISC DIFFERENCE Whether you are seeking a new career opportunity or striving to grow within
your current organization, a CRISC certification proves your expertise in these
work-related domains
PREPARE FOR THE EXAM Set yourself up to succeed on exam day. Whether you prefer to prep on your
own time or want the additional guidance and interaction that comes with live
instruction, we have the right CRISC test prep solutions for you.
Course Description The CRISC Online Review Course is an online preparation course that prepares
learners to pass the CRISC certification exam using proven instructional design
techniques and interactive activities.The course covers all four of the CRISC
domains, and each section corresponds directly to the CRISC job practice.
The course incorporates video, interactive eLearning modules, downloadable,
interactive workbooks, downloadable job aids, case study activities, and pre-and
post-course assessments. Learners will be able to navigate the course at their
own pace, following a recommended structure, or target preferred job practice
areas. Learners may also start and stop the course based on their study
schedule, picking up exactly where they left off the next time they access the
course.
Learning Objectives:
At the completion of this course you will be able to: Identify the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives
and alignment with the Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) strategy.
Analyze and evaluate IT risk to determine the likelihood and impact on business
objectives to enable risk-based decision making.
Determine risk response options and evaluate their efficiency and effectiveness
to manage risk in alignment with business objectives.
Continuously monitor and report on IT risk and controls to relevant stakeholders
to ensure the continued efficiency and effectiveness of the IT risk management
strategy and its alignment with business objectives.
Included Materials: Video
Interactive Content
Downloadable workbooks and job aids
Case study activities
Practice exam
Ideal For: Professionals preparing to become CRISC certified
Risk practitioners
Students or recent graduates
Cancellation/Refund Policy
All purchases of online learning courses are final. Access to the online
learning courses and materials is immediate upon purchasing; therefore no
refunds or exchanges will be provided. Prices subject to change without notice.
Enterprise Training Online review courses are also available for purchase through our enterprise
sales team for larger organizations. Visit the Enterprise Training page and
reach out to an associate for more information.
QUESTION 1 Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk
indicators (KRIs)?
A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that
KRIs continue to effectively
capture these changes.
The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise's internal and external
environments are constantly
changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they
can capture the changes in
threat and vulnerability.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based on KRI
reporting, but is not the
reason for maintenance of KRIs.
B: While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect
to their sensitivity, the most
important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs continue to
effectively capture the changes in
threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most important reason is that
because of change of threat and
vulnerability overtime.
C: Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for
KRI maintenance.
QUESTION 2 You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the
final compilation process. The
project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few
administrative closure
activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have
wrecked the project but you and your
project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the
project costs or project
completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have
identified during the project's
monitoring and controlling process?
A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization's lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project's risk register
already.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The risk responses that do not exist up till then, should be included in the
organization's lessons learned
database so other project managers can use these responses in their project if
relevant.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The responses are not in the project management plan, but in the risk
response plan during the project and
they'll be entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
B: The risk responses are included in the risk response plan, but after
completing the project, they should be
entered into the organization's lessons learned database.
D: If the new responses that were identified is only included in the project's
risk register then it may not be
shared with project managers working on some other project.
QUESTION 3 You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event
on your project that could save
$100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST
describes this risk event?
A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the
threat to the project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential
savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an
opportunity, and the appropriate
strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is
one of the strategies to negate risks
or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with
positive impacts where the
organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a
risk event provides opportunities for
positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project
to reduce the time to completion
is an example of exploit response.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative risk
events, and not in positive risk
events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could save
$100,000, hence it is a positive risk
event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.
B: To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk;
loss is accepted if it occurs. But as
this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and not accepted.
QUESTION 4 You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project
will last for 18 months and will cost
$750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and
stakeholders to identify risks
within the project before the project work begins. Management wants to know why
you have scheduled so
many risk identification meetings throughout the project rather than just
initially during the project planning.
What is the best reason for the duplicate risk identification sessions?
A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk
identification processes throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events
which have passed the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification
participants to identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks
events during project execution.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk identification is an iterative process because new risks may evolve or
become known as the project progresses through its life cycle.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Stakeholders are encouraged to participate in the risk identification
process, but this is not the best choice.
B: Risk identification focuses on discovering new risk events, not the events
which did not happen.
D: The primary reason for iterations of risk identification is to identify new
risk events.
QUESTION 5 You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize
several risks. A risk has a rating for
occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk
Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?
A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Steps involving in calculating risk priority number are as follows:
Identify potential failure effects
Identify potential causes
Establish links between each identified potential cause
Identify potential failure modes
Assess severity, occurrence and detection
Perform score assessments by using a scale of 1 -10 (low to high rating) to
score these assessments.
Compute the RPN for a particular failure mode as Severity multiplied by
occurrence and detection.
RPN = Severity * Occurrence * Detection
Hence,
RPN = 4 * 5 * 6
= 120
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These are not RPN for given values of severity, occurrence, and
detection.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
A. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred
B. Providing an early warning signal
C. Providing an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance
D. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Key Risk Indicators are the prime monitoring indicators of the enterprise. KRIs
are highly relevant and possess
a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk. KRIs help in
avoiding excessively large number of
risk indicators to manage and report that a large enterprise may have.
As KRIs are the indicators of risk, hence its most important function is to
effectively give an early warning
signal that a high risk is emerging to enable management to take proactive
action before the risk actually
becomes a loss.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is one of the important functions of KRIs which can help management to
improve but is not as
important as giving early warning.
C: KRIs provide an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance
through metric setting, but this is
not as important as giving early warning.
D: This is not as important as giving early warning. Click here to
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Prove Your Scrum Knowledge and Get Certified The Professional Scrum MasterTM level I (PSM I) assessment is available to
anyone who wishes to validate his or her depth of knowledge of the PictureScrum
framework and its application. Those who pass the assessment will receive the
industry recognized PSM I Certification to demonstrate their fundamental level
of Scrum mastery.
Taking a course is not required and if you feel that you already possess a high
level of Scrum knowledge, understanding of the Scrum Guide and how to apply
Scrum within Scrum Teams, you have the option to take the PSM I assessment
directly. However, there are courses available to help you prepare for the
assessment and gain a stronger understanding of Scrum. Depending on your role,
either the 2-day Professional Scrum Foundations or Professional Scrum Master
course is highly recommended.
Prepare for the Assessment The assessment is difficult; preparation is required to achieve a passing
score. Reading the Scrum Guide and taking the Open Assessments alone isn't
typically enough preparation and we recommend reviewing the content below:
The assessment covers topics from multiple Focus Areas defined by the
Professional Scrum Competencies.
Many questions ask you to think about or interpret the meaning from the Scrum
Guide and how you would apply Scrum within a Scrum Team.
The PSM I Suggested Reading lists the Focus Areas from which questions may be
selected during the assessment.
The Scrum Master Learning Path contains many additional resources to help you
prepare to take the PSM I Assessment.
Search the list of existing Professional Scrum certification holders here or see
a breakdown on how many people hold certifications.
To protect the integrity of the certification process, Scrum.org does not share
information about the specific questions that were answered correctly or
incorrectly. Learn More
The cost of PSM I is $150 USD. Assessment passwords are valid for one attempt,
do not expire and remain valid until used. See below for more details.
Details Fee: $150 USD per attempt
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 60 minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer and True/False
Difficulty: Intermediate
Language: English only
Scrum Resources
Required course: None
Recommended courses: Professional Scrum Foundations or Professional Scrum Master
PSM Subject Areas
Practice Assessment: Scrum Open
Ways to Learn More to help you prepare
Passwords have no expiration date, but are valid for one attempt only
When you purchase a password, it is set up in our system and emailed to you
within one business day. All Students in a PSM or PSF course are emailed a
password upon completion of the course (typically within 3-5 business days).**
Certification If you pass the PSM I assessment you will receive the industry-recognized "PSM
I" certification, along with a PSM I logo that you can use to identify your
achievement. In addition, your name will be posted publicly for colleagues,
managers, and potential employers to see.
Unlike other Scrum certifications that require only class attendance, Scrum.org
certification requires a minimum score on an online assessment. Attending a
course is neither required nor sufficient for certification. This gives
Scrum.org certification teeth and ensures that it has true value in the
marketplace.
Search the list of Professional Scrum Certificate Holders
QUESTION 1
When many Scrum Teams are working on the same product, should all of their
increments be integrated every Sprint?
A. Yes, but only for Scrum Teams whose work has dependencies.
B. Yes, otherwise the Product Owners (and stakeholders) may not be able to
accurately inspect what is done.
C. No, each Scrum Team stands alone.
D. No, that is far too hard and must be done in a hardening Sprint.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 When can a Development Team cancel a Sprint?
A. It can’t. Only Product Owners can cancel Sprints.
B. When functional expectations are not well understood.
C. When the Product Owner is absent too often.
D. When the selected Product Backlog items for the Sprint become unachievable.
E. When a technical dependency cannot be resolved.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which output from Sprint Planning provides the Development Team with a
target and overarching direction for the Sprint?
A. The Sprint Backlog.
B. The Sprint Goal
C. The release plan.
D. Sprint Review minutes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 How should a Development Team deal with non-functional requirements?
A. Ensure every Increment meets them.
B. Make sure the release department understands these requirements, but it is
not the Development Team’s responsibility.
C. Handle them during the Integration Sprint preceding the Release Sprint.
D. Assign them to the lead developers on the team.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
When is a Sprint over?
A. When the Product Owner says it is done.
B. When all Product Backlog items meet their definition of “Done”.
C. When all the tasks are completed.
D. When the time-box expires.
Regression and Modeling Designed for SAS professionals who use SAS/STAT® software to conduct and
interpret complex statistical data analysis
Successful candidates should have experience in:
Analysis of variance.
Linear and logistic regression.
Preparing inputs for predictive models.
Measuring model performance.
ANOVA - 10% Verify the assumptions of ANOVA
Analyze differences between population means using the GLM and TTEST procedures
Perform ANOVA post hoc test to evaluate treatment effect
Detect and analyze interactions between factors
Linear Regression - 20% Fit a multiple linear regression model using the REG and GLM procedures
Analyze the output of the REG, PLM, and GLM procedures for multiple linear
regression models
Use the REG or GLMSELECT procedure to perform model selection
Assess the validity of a given regression model through the use of diagnostic
and residual analysis
Logistic Regression - 25% Perform logistic regression with the LOGISTIC procedure
Optimize model performance through input selection
Interpret the output of the LOGISTIC procedure
Score new data sets using the LOGISTIC and PLM procedures
Prepare Inputs for Predictive Model Performance - 20% Identify the potential challenges when preparing input data for a model
Use the DATA step to manipulate data with loops, arrays, conditional statements
and functions
Improve the predictive power of categorical inputs
Screen variables for irrelevance and non-linear association using the CORR
procedure
Screen variables for non-linearity using empirical logit plots
Measure Model Performance - 25% Apply the principles of honest assessment to model performance measurement
Assess classifier performance using the confusion matrix
Model selection and validation using training and validation data
Create and interpret graphs (ROC, lift, and gains charts) for model comparison
and selection
Establish effective decision cut-off values for scoring
ANOVA - 10% Verify the assumptions of ANOVA
Explain the central limit theorem and when it must be applied
Examine the distribution of continuous variables (histogram, box-whisker, Q-Q
plots)
Describe the effect of skewness on the normal distribution
Define H0, H1, Type I/II error, statistical power, p-value
Describe the effect of sample size on p-value and power
Interpret the results of hypothesis testing
Interpret histograms and normal probability charts
Draw conclusions about your data from histogram, box-whisker, and Q-Q plots
Identify the kinds of problems may be present in the data: (biased sample,
outliers, extreme values)
For a given experiment, verify that the observations are independent
For a given experiment, verify the errors are normally distributed
Use the UNIVARIATE procedure to examine residuals
For a given experiment, verify all groups have equal response variance
Use the HOVTEST option of MEANS statement in PROC GLM to asses response
variance
Analyze differences between population means using the GLM and TTEST
procedures Use the GLM Procedure to perform ANOVA
o CLASS statement
o MODEL statement
o MEANS statement
o OUTPUT statement
Evaluate the null hypothesis using the output of the GLM procedure
Interpret the statistical output of the GLM procedure (variance derived from
MSE, F value, p-value R**2, Levene's test)
Interpret the graphical output of the GLM procedure
Use the TTEST Procedure to compare means
Perform ANOVA post hoc test to evaluate treatment effect Use the LSMEANS statement in the GLM or PLM procedure to perform pairwise
comparisons
Use PDIFF option of LSMEANS statement
Use ADJUST option of the LSMEANS statement (TUKEY and DUNNETT)
Interpret diffograms to evaluate pairwise comparisons
Interpret control plots to evaluate pairwise comparisons
Compare/Contrast use of pairwise T-Tests, Tukey and Dunnett comparison methods
Detect and analyze interactions between factors Use the GLM procedure to produce reports that will help determine the
significance of the interaction between factors. MODEL statement
LSMEANS with SLICE=option (Also using PROC PLM)
ODS SELECT
Interpret the output of the GLM procedure to identify interaction between
factors: p-value
F Value
R Squared
TYPE I SS
TYPE III SS
Linear Regression - 20%
Fit a multiple linear regression model using the REG and GLM procedures
Use the REG procedure to fit a multiple linear regression model
Use the GLM procedure to fit a multiple linear regression model
Analyze the output of the REG, PLM, and GLM procedures for multiple linear
regression models
Interpret REG or GLM procedure output for a multiple linear regression model:
convert models to algebraic expressions
Convert models to algebraic expressions
Identify missing degrees of freedom
Identify variance due to model/error, and total variance
Calculate a missing F value
Identify variable with largest impact to model
For output from two models, identify which model is better
Identify how much of the variation in the dependent variable is explained by
the model
Conclusions that can be drawn from REG, GLM, or PLM output: (about H0, model
quality, graphics)
Use the REG or GLMSELECT procedure to perform model selection Use the SELECTION option of the model statement in the GLMSELECT procedure
Compare the different model selection methods (STEPWISE, FORWARD, BACKWARD)
Enable ODS graphics to display graphs from the REG or GLMSELECT procedure
Identify best models by examining the graphical output (fit criterion from the
REG or GLMSELECT procedure)
Assign names to models in the REG procedure (multiple model statements)
Assess the validity of a given regression model through the use of diagnostic
and residual analysis Explain the assumptions for linear regression
From a set of residuals plots, asses which assumption about the error terms
has been violated
Use REG procedure MODEL statement options to identify influential observations
(Student Residuals, Cook's D, DFFITS, DFBETAS)
Explain options for handling influential observations
Identify collinearity problems by examining REG procedure output
Use MODEL statement options to diagnose collinearity problems (VIF, COLLIN,
COLLINOINT)
Logistic Regression - 25% Perform logistic regression with the LOGISTIC procedure
Identify experiments that require analysis via logistic regression
Identify logistic regression assumptions
logistic regression concepts (log odds, logit transformation, sigmoidal
relationship between p and X)
Use the LOGISTIC procedure to fit a binary logistic regression model (MODEL
and CLASS statements)
Optimize model performance through input selection Use the LOGISTIC procedure to fit a multiple logistic regression model
LOGISTIC procedure SELECTION=SCORE option
Perform Model Selection (STEPWISE, FORWARD, BACKWARD) within the LOGISTIC
procedure
Interpret the output of the LOGISTIC procedure Interpret the output from the LOGISTIC procedure for binary logistic
regression models: Model Convergence section
Testing Global Null Hypothesis table
Type 3 Analysis of Effects table
Analysis of Maximum Likelihood Estimates table
Association of Predicted Probabilities and Observed Responses
Score new data sets using the LOGISTIC and PLM procedures Use the SCORE statement in the PLM procedure to score new cases
Use the CODE statement in PROC LOGISTIC to score new data
Describe when you would use the SCORE statement vs the CODE statement in PROC
LOGISTIC
Use the INMODEL/OUTMODEL options in PROC LOGISTIC
Explain how to score new data when you have developed a model from a biased
sample
Prepare Inputs for Predictive Model Performance - 20%
Identify the potential challenges when preparing input data for a model
Identify problems that missing values can cause in creating predictive models
and scoring new data sets
Identify limitations of Complete Case Analysis
Explain problems caused by categorical variables with numerous levels
Discuss the problem of redundant variables
Discuss the problem of irrelevant and redundant variables
Discuss the non-linearities and the problems they create in predictive models
Discuss outliers and the problems they create in predictive models
Describe quasi-complete separation
Discuss the effect of interactions
Determine when it is necessary to oversample data
Use the DATA step to manipulate data with loops, arrays, conditional statements
and functions
Use ARRAYs to create missing indicators
Use ARRAYS, LOOP, IF, and explicit OUTPUT statements
Improve the predictive power of categorical inputs
Reduce the number of levels of a categorical variable
Explain thresholding
Explain Greenacre's method
Cluster the levels of a categorical variable via Greenacre's method using the
CLUSTER procedure
o METHOD=WARD option
o FREQ, VAR, ID statement
o Use of ODS output to create an output data set
Convert categorical variables to continuous using smooth weight of evidence
Screen variables for irrelevance and non-linear association using the CORR
procedure
Explain how Hoeffding's D and Spearman statistics can be used to find
irrelevant variables and non-linear associations
Produce Spearman and Hoeffding's D statistic using the CORR procedure (VAR,
WITH statement)
Interpret a scatter plot of Hoeffding's D and Spearman statistic to identify
irrelevant variables and non-linear associations
Screen variables for non-linearity using empirical logit plots
Use the RANK procedure to bin continuous input variables (GROUPS=, OUT=
option; VAR, RANK statements)
Interpret RANK procedure output
Use the MEANS procedure to calculate the sum and means for the target cases
and total events (NWAY option; CLASS, VAR, OUTPUT statements)
Create empirical logit plots with the SGPLOT procedure
Interpret empirical logit plots
Measure Model Performance - 25% Apply the principles of honest assessment to model performance measurement
Explain techniques to honestly assess classifier performance
Explain overfitting
Explain differences between validation and test data
Identify the impact of performing data preparation before data is split
Assess classifier performance using the confusion matrix
Explain the confusion matrix
Define: Accuracy, Error Rate, Sensitivity, Specificity, PV+, PV-
Explain the effect of oversampling on the confusion matrix
Adjust the confusion matrix for oversampling
Model selection and validation using training and validation data
Divide data into training and validation data sets using the SURVEYSELECT
procedure
Discuss the subset selection methods available in PROC LOGISTIC
Discuss methods to determine interactions (forward selection, with bar and @
notation)
Create interaction plot with the results from PROC LOGISTIC
Select the model with fit statistics (BIC, AIC, KS, Brier score)
Create and interpret graphs (ROC, lift, and gains charts) for model comparison
and selection
Explain and interpret charts (ROC, Lift, Gains)
Create a ROC curve (OUTROC option of the SCORE statement in the LOGISTIC
procedure)
Use the ROC and ROCCONTRAST statements to create an overlay plot of ROC curves
for two or more models
Explain the concept of depth as it relates to the gains chart
Establish effective decision cut-off values for scoring
Illustrate a decision rule that maximizes the expected profit
Explain the profit matrix and how to use it to estimate the profit per scored
customer
Calculate decision cutoffs using Bayes rule, given a profit matrix
Determine optimum cutoff values from profit plots
Given a profit matrix, and model results, determine the model with the highest
average profit
Note: All 22 main objectives will be tested on every exam. The 126 expanded
objectives are provided for additional explanation and define the entire domain
that could be tested.
QUESTION 1 When mean imputation is performed on data after the data is partitioned for
honest assessment, what is the most appropriate method for handling the mean
imputation?
A. The sample means from the validation data set are applied to the training and
test data sets.
B. The sample means from the training data set are applied to the validation and
test data sets.
C. The sample means from the test data set are applied to the training and
validation data sets.
D. The sample means from each partition of the data are applied to their own
partition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An analyst generates a model using the LOGISTIC procedure. They are now
interested in getting the
sensitivity and specificity statistics on a validation data set for a variety of
cutoff values.
Which statement and option combination will generate these statistics?
A. Score data=valid1 out=roc;
B. Score data=valid1 outroc=roc;
C. mode1 resp(event= '1') = gender region/outroc=roc;
D. mode1 resp(event"1") = gender region/ out=roc;
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are
acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 An analyst has a sufficient volume of data to perform a 3-way partition of
the data into training, validation, and test sets to perform honest assessment
during the model building process.
What is the purpose of the training data set?
A. To provide an unbiased measure of assessment for the final model.
B. To compare models and select and fine-tune the final model.
C. To reduce total sample size to make computations more efficient.
D. To build the predictive models.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The total modeling data has been split into training, validation, and test
data. What is the best data to use for model assessment?
A. Training data
B. Total data
C. Test data
D. Validation data
