CompTIA A+ Certification validates the latest skills needed by today’s computer support professionals. CompTIA A+ confirms a technician's ability to perform tasks such as installation, configuration, diagnosing, preventive maintenance and basic networking. and more at http://certkingdom.com
Prepare for Microsoft Exam MD-101–and help demonstrate your real-world
mastery of skills and knowledge required to manage modern Windows 10 desktops.
Designed for Windows administrators, Exam Ref focuses on the critical thinking
and decision-making acumen needed for success at the Microsoft Certified
Associate level.
Focus on the expertise measured by these objectives: Deploy and update operating systems
Manage policies and profiles
Manage and protect devices
Manage apps and data
This Microsoft Exam Ref: Organizes its coverage by exam objectives
Features strategic, what-if scenarios to challenge you
Assumes you have experience deploying, configuring, securing, managing, and
monitoring devices and client applications in an enterprise environment
About the Exam Exam MD-101 focuses on knowledge needed to plan and implement Windows 10
with dynamic deployment or Windows Autopilot; upgrade devices to Windows 10;
manage updates and device authentication; plan and implement co-management;
implement conditional access and compliance policies; configure device profiles;
manage user profiles; manage Windows Defender; manage Intune device enrollment
and inventory; monitor devices; deploy/update applications, and implement Mobile
Application Management (MAM).
About Microsoft Certification Passing this exam and Exam MD-100 Windows 10 fulfills your requirements for
the Microsoft 365 Certified: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
certification credential, demonstrating your ability to install Windows 10
operating systems and deploy and manage modern desktops and devices in an
enterprise environment.
Chapter 1: Deploy and Update Operating Systems
Chapter 2: Manage Policies and Profiles
Chapter 3: Manage and Protect Devices
Chapter 4: Manage Apps and Data
About the Practice Test It contains 150 questions and covers the following objectives:
Deploy and Update Operating Systems
Manage Policies and Profiles
Manage and Protect Devices
Manage Apps and Data
Their quality content and innovative technology have earned the prestigious
credential of Microsoft Certified Practice Test Provider.
•Online performance-based simulations give hands on work environment experience
•Questions are similar to exam questions so you test your knowledge of exam
objectives
•Detailed explanations for both correct and distractor answers reinforce the
material
•Study Mode covers all objectives ensuring topics are covered
•Certification Mode (timed) prepares students for exam taking conditions
•Instant, drill-down score reports tell you exactly the areas to focus on.
How to obtain the Practice Test
With your order, you will receive a product key on your Account Page. will give
you access to a downloadable practice test which does not expire as well as
30-day access to the online version.
Before accessing your practice test, you will be required to create an account
at if you don’t already have one.
The downloadable practice test is licensed by for a single user and can be
downloaded on up to three different devices.
QUESTION 1 You need to capture the required information for the sales department
computers to meet the technical requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run first?
A. Install-Module WindowsAutoPilotIntune
B. Install-Script Get-WindowsAutoPilotInfo
C. Import-AutoPilotCSV
D. Get-WindowsAutoPilotInfo
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What should you configure to meet the technical requirements for the Azure
AD-joined computers?
A. Windows Hello for Business from the Endpoint Management admin center.
B. The Accounts options in an endpoint protection profile.
C. The Password Policy settings in a Group Policy object (GPO).
D. A password policy from the Microsoft 365 admin portal.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 You need to prepare for the deployment of the Phoenix office computers.
What should you do first?
A. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload
the file from the Microsoft Endpoint Management admin center.
B. Extract the serial number information of each computer to a XML file and
upload the file from the Microsoft Endpoint Management admin center.
C. Extract the serial number information of each computer to a CSV file and
upload the file from the Microsoft Endpoint Management admin center.
D. Generalize the computers and configure the Device settings from the Azure
Active Directory admin center.
CompTIA ITF+ helps professionals to decide if a career in IT is right for
them or to develop a broader understanding of IT.
ITF+ is the only pre-career certification that helps students or career changers
determine if they have a competency for information technology and if it is the
right career path for them.
ITF+ is the only single certification that covers all areas of IT foundations,
creating a broader understanding of IT making it ideal for non-technical
professionals.
ITF+ establishes an IT education framework for students in middle school and
high school.
About the exam The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and
knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and
entry-level IT professionals alike, including:
Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing
network connectivity
Identifying common software applications and their purpose
Using security and web browsing best practices
This exam is intended for candidates who are advanced end users and/or are
considering a career in IT. The exam is also a good fit for individuals
interested in pursuing professional-level certifications, such as A+.
What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE IT CONCEPTS & TERMINOLOGY Comprehend notational systems, illustrate the basics of computing and
explain the value of data and troubleshooting
WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS INFRASTRUCTURE Know how to set up and install common peripheral devices to a laptop/PC or
secure a basic wireless network
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING APPLICATIONS & SOFTWARE Manage applications software, understand the various components of an
operating system and explain the purpose of methods of application architecture
NETWORKING SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT Comprehend programming language categories, interpret logic, and understand
the purpose of programming concepts
HARDWARE & NETWORK TROUBLESHOOTING DATABASE FUNDAMENTALS Able to explain database concepts, structures, and purpose, as well as
understands methods used to interface
SECURITY
Understand confidentiality, integrity, and availability concerns of secure
devices and best practice methods
Who would benefit from ITF+? Students considering a career in IT.
Professionals working in fields that require a broad understanding of IT.
Marketing, sales and operations staff in IT-based organizations.
Why would you benefit from ITF+? In 2017, nearly 5.4 million individuals worked as technology professionals
across the U.S., representing an increase of 2.1%, or nearly 110,000 net new
jobs. CompTIA ITF+ will help you determine if this is the field for you.
Twelve years ago, technology spending outside of IT was 20 percent of total
technology spending; it will become almost 90 percent by the end of the decade,
according to Gartner, Inc. All workers need fundamental IT skills to use these
technologies.
Exam Details Exam Codes Exam FC0-U61
Launch Date September 4, 2018
Exam Details The new CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the knowledge and
skills required to identify and explain the basics of computing, IT
infrastructure, software development, and database use. With this new version
comes the addition of the + to further distinguish ourselves within the
marketplace and represent CompTIA quality and standards.
Number of Questions Maximum of 75 questions per exam
Type of Questions Multiple choice
Length of Test 60 Minutes
Passing Score 650 (on a scale of 900)
Recommended Experience No prior experience necessary
Languages English
Retirement Usually three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE
Testing Centers Online Testing
CompTIA IT Fundamentals FC0-U61:
What’s in this version The exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills
required to identify and explain the basics of computing, IT infrastructure,
application and software, software development, database fundamentals and
security. In addition, candidates will have the ability to demonstrate their
knowledge to:
Install software Establish basic network connectivity
Identify/prevent basic security risks
Explain troubleshooting theory and preventative maintenance of devices
Renewal The CompTIA IT Fundamentals certification is considered good for life and
does not need to be renewed.
For certifications that are part of the CompTIA Continuing Education program and
that can be renewed, please go to our Continuing Education page.
Good for Life Certifications IT Fundamentals is good for life.
QUESTION 1 Which of the following would MOST likely prevent malware sent as compromised
file via email from infecting a person’s computer?
A. Email previewing
B. Patching
C. Clear browsing cache
D. Kill process
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A user wants to use a laptop outside the house and still remain connected to
the Internet. Which of the following would be the BEST choice to accomplish this
task?
A. Thunderbolt cable
B. Bluetooth module
C. Infrared port
D. WLAN card
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Joe, a user, finds out his password for a social media site has been
compromised. Joe tells a friend that his email and banking accounts are probably
also compromised. Which of the following has Joe MOST likely performed?
A. Password reuse
B. Snooping
C. Social engineering
D. Phishing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A technician is installing a new wireless network and wants to secure the
wireless network to prevent unauthorized access. Which of the following
protocols would be the MOST secure?
A. WPA
B. SSID
C. WEP
D. WPA2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following network protocols will MOST likely be used when
sending and receiving Internet email? (Select TWO.)
Audience The Foundation Level syllabus forms the basis of the International Software
Testing Qualifications Board (ISTQB®) Certified Tester Scheme.
ISTQB® Foundation Level is relevant across software delivery practices including
Waterfall, Agile, DevOps and Continuous Delivery.
The 2018 Foundation Level qualification is suitable for anyone who needs to
demonstrate practical knowledge of the fundamental concepts of software testing
including people in roles such as testers, test analysts, test engineers, test
consultants, test managers, user acceptance testers and software developers.
It is also appropriate for individuals who need a basic understanding of
software testing including project managers, quality managers, software
development managers, business analysts, IT directors and management
consultants.
The new 2018 syllabus is recognised as a pre-requisite to other ISTQB®
certifications where Foundation Level is required (note: all previous releases
of Foundation Level, including the 2011 syllabus and “grandfathered” Foundation
Level certifications, will remain valid).
Training for 2018 Certified Tester Foundation Level is available from Accredited
Training Providers (classroom, virtual and e-learning). We highly recommend
attending accredited training as an ISTQB® Member Board will have assessed the
materials for relevance and consistency against the syllabus. Information about
Accredited Training Providers can be found here or contact your local ISTQB®
Member Board or Exam Provider
Self-study, using the syllabus and recommended reading material, is also an
option when preparing for the Foundation Level exam. Your local ISTQB® Member
Board or Exam Provider will be able to provide information on exams e.g.
languages available, where to find an exam centre etc.
Have a look at the Foundation Level introduction video.
Business Outcomes
The Business Outcomes expected of a candidate who has achieved the 2018
Foundation Level certification are as follows:
Promote efficient and effective communication by using a common vocabulary for
software testing.
Understand fundamental concepts of software testing.
Demonstrate understanding of how different development and testing practices,
and different constraints on testing, may apply in optimizing testing to
different contexts.
Contribute effectively in reviews.
Use established techniques for designing tests at all test levels.
Interpret and execute tests from given test specifications. Report on test
results.
Understand test management principles for resources, strategies, planning,
project control and risk management
Write and communicate clear and understandable defect reports
Understand the project factors that drive the test priorities and test approach
Understand the value that software testing brings to stakeholders
Appreciate how testing activities and work products align with project
objectives, measures and targets
Assist in the selection and implementation process of testing tool
Learning Objectives
Learning objectives are indicated for each section in the syllabus and
classified as follows:
K1: remember, recognize, recall
K2: understand, explain, give reasons, compare, classify, categorize, give
examples, summarize
K3: apply, use
K4: analyze
There are 62 Learning objectives in the 2018 Foundation syllabus:
15 K1
40 K2
7 K3
The 2018 Foundation Level Learning objectives are as follows:
Chapter 1 Fundamentals of Testing
1.1 What is Testing?
LO-1.1.1 Identify typical objectives of testing (K1)
LO-1.1.2 Differentiate testing from debugging (K2)
1.2 Why is Testing Necessary?
LO-1.2.1 Give examples of why testing is necessary (K2)
LO-1.2.2 Describe the relationship between testing and quality assurance and
give examples of how testing contributes to higher quality (K2)
LO-1.2.3 Distinguish between error, defect, and failure (K2)
LO-1.2.4 Distinguish between the root cause of a defect and its effects (K2)
1.3 Seven Testing Principles (K2)
LO-1.3.1 Explain the seven principles of testing (K2)
1.4 Test Process
LO-1.4.1 Explain the impact of context on the test process (K2)
LO-1.4.2 Describe the test activities and respective tasks within the test
process (K2)
LO-1.4.3 Differentiate the work products that support the test process (K2)
LO-1.4.4 Explain the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis
and the test work products (K2)
1.5 The Psychology of Testing (K2)
LO-1.5.1 Identify the psychological factors that influence the success of
testing (K1)
LO-1.5.2 Explain the difference between the mindset required for test activities
and the mindset required for development activities (K2)
Chapter 2 Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle
2.1. Software Development Lifecycle Models
LO-2.1.1 Explain the relationships between software development activities and
test activities in the software development lifecycle (K2)
LO-2.1.2 Identify reasons why software development lifecycle models must be
adapted to the context of project and product characteristics (K1)
LO-2.1.3 Recall characteristics of good testing that are applicable to any life
cycle model (K1)
2.2 Test Levels (K2)
LO-2.2.1 Compare the different test levels from the perspective of objectives,
test basis, test objects, typical defects and failures, and approaches and
responsibilities (K2)
2.3 Test Types (K2)
LO-2.3.1 Compare functional, non-functional and white-box testing (K2)
LO-2.3.2 Recognize that functional and structural tests occur at any test level
(K1)
LO-2.3.3 Recognize that functional, non-functional and white-box tests occur at
any test level (K1)
LO-2.3.4 Compare the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing
(K2)
2.4 Maintenance Testing (K2)
LO-2.4.1 Summarize triggers for maintenance testing (K2)
LO-2.4.2 Describe the role of impact analysis in maintenance testing (K2)
LO-2.4.3 Describe the role of impact analysis in maintenance testing (K2)
Chapter 3 Static Testing
3.1 Static Testing Basics
LO-3.1.1 Recognize types of software work product that can be examined by the
different static testing techniques (K1)
LO-3.1.2 Use examples to describe the value of static testing (K2)
LO-3.1.3 Explain the difference between static and dynamic techniques,
considering objectives, types of defects to be identified, and the role of these
techniques within the software lifecycle (K2)
3.2 Review Process
LO-3.2.1 Summarize the activities of the work product review process (K2)
LO-3.2.2 Recognize the different roles and responsibilities in a formal review
(K1)
LO-3.2.3 Explain the differences between different review types: informal
review, walkthrough, technical review and inspection (K2)
LO-3.2.4 Apply a review technique to a work product to find defects (K3)
LO-3.2.5 Explain the factors that contribute to a successful review (K2)
Chapter 4 Test Techniques
4.1 Categories of Test Techniques
LO-4.1.1 Explain the characteristics, commonalities, and differences between
black-box test techniques, white-box test techniques and experience-based test
techniques (K2)
4.2 Black-box Test Techniques
LO-4.2.1 Apply equivalence partitioning to derive test cases from given
requirements (K3)
LO-4.2.2 Apply boundary value analysis to derive test cases from given
requirements (K3)
LO-4.2.3 Apply decision table testing to derive test cases from given
requirements (K3)
LO-4.2.4 Apply state transition testing to derive test cases from given
requirements (K3)
LO-4.2.5 Explain how to derive test cases from a use case (K2)
4.3 White-box Test Techniques
LO-4.3.1 Explain statement coverage (K2)
LO-4.3.2 Explain decision coverage (K2)
LO-4.3.3 Explain the value of statement and decision coverage (K2)
5.1 Test Organization LO-5.1.1 Explain the benefits and drawbacks of independent testing (K2)
LO-5.1.2 Identify the tasks of a test manager and tester (K1)
5.2 Test Planning and Estimation
LO-5.2.1 Summarize the purpose and content of a test plan (K2)
LO-5.2.2 Differentiate between various test approaches (K2)
LO-5.2.3 Give examples of potential entry and exit criteria (K2)
LO-5.2.4 Apply knowledge of prioritization, and technical and logical
dependencies, to schedule test execution for a given set of test cases (K3)
LO-5.2.5 Identify factors that influence the effort related to testing (K1)
LO-5.2.6 Explain the difference between two estimation techniques: the
metrics-based technique and the expert-based technique (K2)
5.3 Test Monitoring and Control
LO-5.3.1 Recall metrics used for testing (K1)
LO-5.3.2 Summarize the purposes, contents, and audiences for test reports (K2)
5.5 Risks and Testing
LO-5.5.1 Define risk level by using likelihood and impact (K1)
LO-5.5.2 Distinguish between project and product risks (K2)
LO-5.5.3 Describe, by using examples, how product risk analysis may influence
thoroughness and scope of testing (K2)
5.6 Defect Management
LO-5.6.1 Write a defect report, covering defects found during testing (K3)
Chapter 6. Tool Support for Testing
6.1 Test tool considerations LO-6.1.1 Classify test tools according to their purpose and the test
activities they support (K2)
LO-6.1.2 Identify benefits and risks of test automation (K1)
LO-6.1.3 Remember special considerations for test execution and test management
tools (K1)
6.2 Test Planning and Estimation (K3) LO-6.2.1 Identify the main principles for selecting a tool (K1)
LO-6.2.2 Recall the objectives for using pilot projects to introduce tools (K1)
LO-6.2.3 Identify the success factors for evaluation, implementation, deployment
and on-going support of test tools in an organization (K1)
Syllabus The Foundation Level Syllabus forms the basis for the International Software
Testing Qualification at the Foundation Level.
The International Software Testing Qualifications Board® (ISTQB®) provides it to
the national examination bodies for them to accredit the training providers and
to derive examination questions in their local language.
Training providers will produce courseware and determine appropriate teaching
methods for accreditation, and the syllabus will help candidates in their
preparation for the examination.
The Certified Tester Foundation Level in Software Testing
The Foundation Level qualification is aimed at anyone involved in software
testing. This includes people in roles such as testers, test analysts, test
engineers, test consultants, test managers, user acceptance testers and software
developers.
This Foundation Level qualification is also appropriate for anyone who wants a
basic understanding of software testing, such as project managers, quality
managers, software development managers, business analysts, IT directors and
management consultants. Holders of the Foundation Certificate will be able to go
on to a higher level software testing qualification.
The Foundation Level Syllabus 2018 is available in Materials for download
section.
QUESTION 1
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not
a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the
test progress report?
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the
exit criteria to be achieved
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you
produce for the project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from
the following options that can be used to report to the project
manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics
can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one
of those objectives?
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a
safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics
package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to
see addressed in the test plan?
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety
critical area, testing needs to be rigorous
and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures that would
typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always
applicable in other domains!
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Certification Preparation for the Genesys Cloud Certified Professional (GCP-GC)
Exam
Let us help you prepare for success! Your instructor will walk through a series
of assessments and hands-on exploration to ensure you will know which topics are
covered in the exam and what to expect from the exam experience. At the end of
the day, you will walk away knowing if there are still areas you need to study,
what those areas are, and have access to a live environment for an extra day to
practice!
Target Audience
Students who plan to take the exam to be certified The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional - Contact Center Admin exam
introduces the fundamental concepts and major components associated with the
Contact Center feature set of the Genesys Cloud platform.
This exam provides an overview of the Genesys Cloud interface and presents
scenarios to facilitate your understanding of the administration of a contact
center. You will also gain familiarity with daily contact center monitoring and
administration tasks.
Note: The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional (GCP-GC) certification is
obtained by completing the following three exams (Contact Center Administration,
Implementation, and Reporting & Analytics). The prerequisite for GCP-GC is the
Genesys Cloud Certified Associate (GCA-GC) certification.
Target Audience The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional - Contact Center Admin exam is
intended for system administrators, contact center managers, project managers,
and supervisors to help them monitor and administer the contact center. The exam
is also useful for anyone else who needs to learn the basic functionality of
Genesys Cloud Contact Center.
Course Objectives Genesys Cloud Collaborate
Basic overview of the Genesys Cloud Platform and Administration
Overview of Genesys Cloud Collaborate
List the features of Genesys Cloud Contact Center
List the three levels of Contact Center licensing
Configure Automatic Call Distribution to optimize customer service
Describe ACD processing
Explain interaction flow and queue design
Evaluation and routing combination
Configure agent utilization
Configure ACD Skills and Language Skills
Configure wrap-up codes
Configure After Call Work
Activate and deactivate agents on queues
Test ACD call routing
Configure ACD email in Admin settings
Test ACD email routing
Describe ACD Messages
Purpose and capabilities of Genesys Cloud Architect
Features of Genesys Cloud Architect
Describe the options for Inbound
Describe how to create and edit System and User Prompts
Genesys Cloud Data Actions Integration
Describe the function and purpose of the Genesys Cloud data actions Integration
Scripting in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Describe Scripts and basic script functionality
Genesys Cloud Outbound Dialing
Describe the Outbound Dialing modes
Explain the use of Contact Lists
Configure and test an Outbound Power Dialing campaign
Use of Reports and Dynamic Views
List the main types of reports and describe their use
List the main Dynamic Views and describe their use
Configure and run an Interaction Details report
Quality Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Quality Policies Overview
Describe how to enable call recording on a Trunk
Create a recording policy
Create and publish an Evaluation form
Quality Evaluator and Quality Administrator dashboards
Workforce Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Workforce Management Overview
Working with Schedules
Benefits of scheduling agents
Create a manual schedule
QUESTION 1
Which license offers features for organizations that require multi-channel based
support, including social media along with Workforce Management in their contact
center?
A. Genesys Cloud 1
B. Genesys Cloud 2
C. Genesys Cloud 3
D. Genesys Cloud 4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Where can you find people in your organization and add external contacts to
the organization?
A. Documents
B. Activity
C. Directory
D. Location
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 How many categories of routing are there in a Call Route under the Call
Routing page?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You can add more than one outbound route to the contact center.
Azure Data Engineers integrate, transform, and consolidate data from various
structured and unstructured data systems into structures that are suitable for
building analytics solutions.
Candidates for Exam DP-203: Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure must have solid
knowledge of data processing languages, such as SQL, Python, or Scala, and they
need to understand parallel processing and data architecture patterns.
Beta exams are not scored immediately because we are gathering data on the
quality of the questions and the exam. Learn more about the value and importance
of beta exams.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate
Related exams: none
Important: See details
Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks:
design and implement data storage; design and develop data processing; design
and implement data security; and monitor and optimize data storage and data
processing.
Skills measured Design and implement data storage (40-45%)
Design and develop data processing (25-30%)
Design and implement data security (10-15%)
Monitor and optimize data storage and data processing (10-15%)
Audience Profile Candidates for this exam should have subject matter expertise integrating,
transforming, and consolidating data from various structured and unstructured
data systems into a structure that is suitable for building analytics solutions.
Azure Data Engineers help stakeholders understand the data through exploration,
and they build and maintain secure and compliant data processing pipelines by
using different tools and techniques. These professionals use various Azure data
services and languages to store and produce cleansed and enhanced datasets for
analysis.
Azure Data Engineers also help ensure that data pipelines and data stores are
high-performing, efficient, organized, and reliable, given a set of business
requirements and constraints. They deal with unanticipated issues swiftly, and
they minimize data loss. They also design, implement, monitor, and optimize data
platforms to meet the data pipelines needs.
A candidate for this exam must have strong knowledge of data processing
languages such as SQL, Python, or Scala, and they need to understand parallel
processing and data architecture patterns.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to
illustrate how we
assess that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam
may contain questions on Preview features, if those features are commonly used.
Design and Implement Data Storage (40-45%)
Design a data storage structure design an Azure Data Lake solution
recommend file types for storage
recommend file types for analytical queries
design for efficient querying
design for data pruning
design a folder structure that represents the levels of data transformation
design a distribution strategy
design a data archiving solution
Design a partition strategy design a partition strategy for files
design a partition strategy for analytical workloads
design a partition strategy for efficiency/performance
design a partition strategy for Azure Synapse Analytics
identify when partitioning is needed in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2
Design the serving layer design star schemas
design slowly changing dimensions
design a dimensional hierarchy
design a solution for temporal data
design for incremental loading
design analytical stores
design metastores in Azure Synapse Analytics and Azure Databricks
Implement physical data storage structures
implement compression
implement partitioning
implement sharding
implement different table geometries with Azure Synapse Analytics pools
implement data redundancy
implement distributions
implement data archiving
Implement logical data structures build a temporal data solution
build a slowly changing dimension
build a logical folder structure
build external tables
implement file and folder structures for efficient querying and data pruning
Implement the serving layer deliver data in a relational star schema
deliver data in Parquet files
maintain metadata
implement a dimensional hierarchy
Design and Develop Data Processing (25-30%)
Ingest and transform data
transform data by using Apache Spark
transform data by using Transact-SQL
transform data by using Data Factory
transform data by using Azure Synapse Pipelines
transform data by using Stream Analytics
cleanse data
split data
shred JSON
encode and decode data
configure error handling for the transformation
normalize and denormalize values
transform data by using Scala
perform data exploratory analysis
Design and develop a batch processing solution
develop batch processing solutions by using Data Factory, Data Lake, Spark,
Azure
Synapse Pipelines, PolyBase, and Azure Databricks create data pipelines
design and implement incremental data loads
design and develop slowly changing dimensions
handle security and compliance requirements
scale resources
configure the batch size
design and create tests for data pipelines
integrate Jupyter/IPython notebooks into a data pipeline
handle duplicate data
handle missing data
handle late-arriving data
upsert data
regress to a previous state
design and configure exception handling
configure batch retention
design a batch processing solution
debug Spark jobs by using the Spark UI
Design and develop a stream processing solution
develop a stream processing solution by using Stream Analytics, Azure
Databricks, and Azure Event Hubs
process data by using Spark structured streaming
monitor for performance and functional regressions
design and create windowed aggregates
handle schema drift
process time series data
process across partitions
process within one partition
configure checkpoints/watermarking during processing
scale resources
design and create tests for data pipelines
optimize pipelines for analytical or transactional purposes
handle interruptions
design and configure exception handling
upsert data
replay archived stream data
design a stream processing solution
Manage batches and pipelines
trigger batches
handle failed batch loads
validate batch loads
manage data pipelines in Data Factory/Synapse Pipelines
schedule data pipelines in Data Factory/Synapse Pipelines
implement version control for pipeline artifacts
manage Spark jobs in a pipeline
Design and Implement Data Security (10-15%)
Design security for data policies and standards design data encryption for data at rest and in transit
design a data auditing strategy
design a data masking strategy
design for data privacy
design a data retention policy
design to purge data based on business requirements
design Azure role-based access control (Azure RBAC) and POSIX-like Access
Control List (ACL) for Data Lake Storage Gen2
design row-level and column-level security
Implement data security implement data masking
encrypt data at rest and in motion
implement row-level and column-level security
implement Azure RBAC
implement POSIX-like ACLs for Data Lake Storage Gen2
implement a data retention policy
implement a data auditing strategy
manage identities, keys, and secrets across different data platform
technologies
implement secure endpoints (private and public)
implement resource tokens in Azure Databricks
load a DataFrame with sensitive information
write encrypted data to tables or Parquet files
manage sensitive information
Monitor and Optimize Data Storage and Data Processing (10-15%)
Monitor data storage and data processing
implement logging used by Azure Monitor
configure monitoring services
measure performance of data movement
monitor and update statistics about data across a system
monitor data pipeline performance
measure query performance
monitor cluster performance
understand custom logging options
schedule and monitor pipeline tests
interpret Azure Monitor metrics and logs
interpret a Spark directed acyclic graph (DAG)
Optimize and troubleshoot data storage and data processing
compact small files
rewrite user-defined functions (UDFs)
handle skew in data
handle data spill
tune shuffle partitions
find shuffling in a pipeline
optimize resource management
tune queries by using indexers
tune queries by using cache
optimize pipelines for analytical or transactional purposes
optimize pipeline for descriptive versus analytical workloads
troubleshoot a failed spark job
troubleshoot a failed pipeline run
QUESTION 1 You need to implement the surrogate key for the retail store table. The
solution must meet the sales transaction dataset requirements.
What should you create?
A. a table that has an IDENTITY property
B. a system-versioned temporal table
C. a user-defined SEQUENCE object
D. a table that has a FOREIGN KEY constraint
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You need to design an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool that meets
the following requirements:
Can return an employee record from a given point in time.
Maintains the latest employee information.
Minimizes query complexity.
How should you model the employee data?
A. as a temporal table
B. as a SQL graph table
C. as a degenerate dimension table
D. as a Type 2 slowly changing dimension (SCD) table
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 You have an enterprise-wide Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account. The data
lake is accessible only
through an Azure virtual network named VNET1.
You are building a SQL pool in Azure Synapse that will use data from the data
lake.
Your company has a sales team. All the members of the sales team are in an Azure
Active Directory group
named Sales. POSIX controls are used to assign the Sales group access to the
files in the data lake.
You plan to load data to the SQL pool every hour.
You need to ensure that the SQL pool can load the sales data from the data lake.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each area selection is worth one point.
A. Add the managed identity to the Sales group.
B. Use the managed identity as the credentials for the data load process.
C. Create a shared access signature (SAS).
D. Add your Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) account to the Sales group.
E. Use the snared access signature (SAS) as the credentials for the data load
process.
F. Create a managed identity.
Exam series: NSE7_SDW-6.4
Number of questions: 35
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English
Product version: FortiOS 6.4
Status: Available
Exam details: exam description
NSE 7 Certification The Fortinet Network Security Architect designation identifies your advanced
skills in deploying, administering, and troubleshooting Fortinet security
solutions. We recommend this certification for network and security
professionals
who are involved in the advanced administration and support of security
infrastructures using Fortinet solutions. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification
Program page for information about certification requirements.
Fortinet NSE 7—SD-WAN 6.4 The Fortinet NSE 7—SD-WAN 6.4 exam is part of the NSE 7 Network Security
Architect program, and recognizes the successfu() candidate’s knowledge and
expertise with the Fortinet SD-WAN solution.
The exam tests applied knowledge of the integration, administration,
troubleshooting, and centra() management of a secure SD-WAN solution composed of
FortiOS 6.4.0 and FortiManager 6.4.0. Audience
The Fortinet NSE 7—SD-WAN 6.4 exam is intended for network and security
professionals who are responsible for
the design, administration, and support of a secure SD-WAN infrastructure
composed of many FortiGate devices.
Exam Details Exam name Fortinet NSE 7—SD-WAN 6.4
Exam series NSE7_SDW-6.4
Time allowed 60 minutes
Exam questions 35 multiple-choice questions
Scoring Pass or fail, a score report is available from your Pearson VUE account
Language English
Product version FortiOS 6.4.0, FortiManager 6.4.0, FortiAnalyzer 6.4.0
Exam Topics Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following
areas and tasks:
() SD-WAN configuration
() Configure basic SD-WAN setup
() Configure SD-WAN rules
() Configure SD-WAN SLAs
() Configure SD-WAN routing
() Centra() management
() Centrally manage an SD-WAN infrastructure from FortiManager
() Troubleshoot centra() management problems
() VPN
() Implement a ful() or partially meshed redundant VPN infrastructure
() Troubleshoot VPN and ADVPN
() SD-WAN troubleshooting
() Troubleshoot SD-WAN
Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills
that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a
foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and
objectives.
Experience () Minimum of two to three years of hands-on experience with FortiGate and
FortiManager devices.
QUESTION 1 Which statement defines how a per-IP traffic shaper of 10 Mbps is applied to
the entire network?
A. The 10 Mbps bandwidth is shared equally among the IP addresses.
B. Each IP is guaranteed a minimum 10 Mbps of bandwidth.
C. FortiGate allocates each IP address a maximum 10 Mbps of bandwidth.
D. A single user uses the allocated bandwidth divided by total number of users.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which three parameters are available to configure SD-WAN rules? (Choose
three.)
A. Application signatures
B. Incoming interface
C. Internet service database (ISDB) address object
D. Source and destination IP address
E. Type of physical link connection
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 3 Which diagnostic command you can use to show interface-specific SLA logs for
the last 10 minutes?
A. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link health-check
B. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link log
C. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link sla-log
D. diagnose sys virtual-wan-link intf-sla-log
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QUESTION 1 The failure of install multipath is mostly due to compatibility, which
components mainly needs to consider compatible when install multipath? (Select
three Answers)
A. with OS specific version
B. with HBA card
C. server system hard disk drive
D. with iSCSI initiator software
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 2 How to troubleshooting whether there is impact performance of failure hard
disk in storage system (slow)?
A. under CLI check RAID LUN state, whether if it is abnormal
B. in storage debug mode, through the command of iostat –x –d 1 to check IO of
storage system, the average service time of some disk (svctm) over a period of
time is obviously more than other disk, %util is close to 100%, and other disk
are free, can judge the hard disk performance
C. on host side check LUN IO state under multipath
D. check the link state in host side and ISM storage interface
Answer: B
QUESTION 3 About storage network management software, which description is wrong?
A. equipment management can manage storage array device
B. business management, business flow management
C. topology display, visual display device of the current topology connection
status
D. DHA service management, hard disk health data/performance data
Answer: A
QUESTION 4 For backup and disaster, what size of striping depth are recommended the
common used?
A. 8K
B. 16K-128K
C. 64K
D. more than 64K
Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following command can check kernel version information in linux
system?
